UNIT 15
HOMEOSTASIS
Multiple Choice Questions
1) The protection of an internal
environment from the harms of
fluctuations is the definition of
which of the followings? 12415025
a) Osmoregulation b) Excretion
c) Thermoregulation d) Homeostasis
2) The category of the plants
that has adaptations of small and thick
leaves to limit water loss are called. 12415026
a) Hydrophytes b) Xerophytes
c) Mesophytes d) Hygrophytes
3) The environment where the
animals produce large volumes of diluted urine. 12415027
a) Hypotonic aquatic b) Isotonic aquatic
c) Hypertonic aquatic d) Terrestrial
4) Which of the following is
excretophore? (Board
2015) 12415028
a) Stem b)
Roots
c) Leaves d)
flowers
5) The excretory product that
requires minimum water for its elimination compare to others. 12415029
a) Urea b)
Uric acid
c) Creatinine d)
Ammonia
6) The groups of animals whose
excretory system is structurally associated with nutritive tract. 12415030
a) Vertebrates b) Earthworm
c) Planaria d) Insects
7) The excretory structures that
deliver urine from kidney to urinary bladder. 12415031
a) Urethera b) Pelvis
c) Ureter d) Collecting
tubule
8) The metabolic wastes that are ingested into the body and must be
removed.
12415032
a) Pesticides b) Drugs
c) Food additives d) All of these
9) Which of the following is not endotherm?
a) Bird b)
Amphibian 12415033
c) Flying insects d) Mammals
10) Name the type of adaptations from the followings that is
responsible for shivering thermogenesis. 12415034
a) Structural b) Physiological
c) Behavioral d) None of these
(1) OSMOREGULATION
1) The
regulation of the amount of water in the body is called: 12415035
a) Osmoregulation
b) Thermoregulation
c) Hydroregulation
d) Aqua regulation
2) The
control system in a living animal for the maintenance of homeostatic balance
consists of three components viz. receptors, control centre and:
12415036
a) Stimulus b) Respondent
c) Effector d) Stimulator
3) A more concentrated extracellular environment than
cell is called: 12415037
a) Hypotonic b) Hypertonic
c) Isotonic d) Peritonic
4) Plants growing under moderate
conditions of the environment are known as:
12415038
a) Hydrophytes b) Xerophytes
c) Mesophytes d) Hygrophytes
5) The
fishes which are isotonic to the surrounding sea water are, the: 12415039
a) Cartilaginous
fishes b) Bony fishes
c) Hagfishes d) Lungfishes
6) Most
cartilaginous fishes possess salt excreting organs known as the: 12415040
a) Foetal glands
b) Caecal glands
c) Rectal glands
d) Sebaceous glands
7) The
fishes which drink large amount of sea water and excrete concentrated urine are
the: 12415041
a) Cartilaginous
fishes
b) Bony fishes
c) Lung fishes
d) Jawless fishes
8) Some
desert mammals do survive without drinking water such as: 12415042
a) Musk rat b) Kangaroo rat
c) Camel d) Goat
9) Water
may be produced as a waste product during: 12415043
a) Photosynthesis b) Respiration
c) Photosynthesis and
respiration
d) None of the above
10) The
ability of an organism to regulate
its fluid contents is called: 12415044
a) Homeostasis b) Osmoregulation
c) Excretion d) thermoregulation
11) Fresh water protozoa, amoeba and
paramecium pump out excess water by structures: 12415045
a) Cell membranes
b) Contractile vacuoles
c) Exosmosis
d) Active potassium pumps
12) The
animals which keep their body fluid isotonic to the external environment are
called. 12415046
a) Osmoconformers
b) Osmoregulators
c) Endotherms
d) Thermoregulators
13) Some
fishes have relatively low salts in body fluids but make it concentrate equal
to sea water by retaining ___ in adequate concentration. 12415047
a) Salts b) Ammonia
c) Urea d) Uric acid
14) Bony
fishes which live in sea water have adapted to drink large amount of sea’s water
and excrete: 12415048
a) concentrated urine b) diluted urine
c) uric acid crystals d) none
15) Many
freshwater animals including fishes remove excess water by producing large
volumes of: 12415049
a) Very dilute urine
b) Very concentrate urine
c) Both a & b
d) none of these
16) Terrestrial
animals can tolerate dehydration and it differs in various animals. This
characteristic is known as: 12415050
a) anhydration b) anhydrobiosis
c) osmoregulation d)
homeostasis
17) In fresh water fishes water enter into
the body of fishes: 12415051
a) Actively
b) Passively
c) Through gills
d) Through swim bladder
18) In marine fishes salts are excreted:
12415052
a) Actively b) Passively
c) Both a & b d) None
19) Contractile vacoules are found in:
a) Plants (Board 2016) 12415053
b) Fresh water protozoa
c) Terrestrial animals
d) Marine plants
(2) EXCRETION
i)
Plants
1) The plant which
deposit strange chemicals in their branches and trunks, especially in old
xylem. 12415054
a) Cactus b) Ebony
c) Oak d)
Maple
2) The plants which secrete waste compounds
into soil, using them as chemical weapon against other competing plants. 12415055
a) Bryophytes b) Angiosperms
c) Xerophytes d) Conifers
3) Some
trees such as ebony, deposit strange chemicals in old xylem of their: 12415056
a) Branches b) Trunks
c) Branches and
trunks d) Roots
4) Plants
in their autotrophic mode of life produce as the excretory products. 12415057
a) H2O b) Oxygen
c) CO2 d) All of the above
ii) Animals
1) The chemical which give protection
against urea to some fishes: 12415058
a) Creatine b)
Xanthine
c) Trimethylamine oxide d) Uric acid
2) The protein which maintain osmotic balance of blood. 12415059
a) Albumen b) Prothrombin
c) Fibrinogen d) Haemoglobin
3)
The organ which reabsorbs
most of the salts and water from nitrogenous wastes in insects: 12415060
a) Malpighian tubules
b) Small intestine
c) Colon
d) Rectum
4) Deamination
is the process of removal of amino group from an amino acid and leading to the
formation of: 12415061
a) Ammonia b) Urea
c) Uric acid d) Creatine
5) The excretory product that
requires minimum water for its elimination as compared to others is 12415062
a) Urea b) Uric acid
c) Creatinine d) Ammonia
6)
Lower quantities of nitrogen are excreted in the animals in the form of: 12415063
a) Creatinine b) Creatine
c) Trimethylamine
oxide
d) All of the above
7) A
large amount of nitrogenous wastes like hypoxanthine, xanthine, uric acid,
allantoin, urea and ammonia is produced by the metabolism of: 12415064
a) Purines b) Pyrimidines
c) Purines and
pyrimidines
d) None of the above
8) Metablism
of purine and pyrimidines does not produce: 12415065
a) Hypoxanthine b)
Creatine
c) Urea d) Ammonia
9) The
most toxic nitrogenous waste in animals is the: 12415066
a) Urea b) Ammonia
c) Uric acid d) Citrulline
10) Ammonia
may be the chief nitrogenous waste only
in those animals which live in; 12415067
a) Fresh water
b) Marine water
c) Fresh and marine
water
d) Desert
11) The
excretion of one gram of ammonia nitrogen needs: (Board
2016) 12415068
a) 50 ml of water b) 500 ml of water
c) One ml of water d)
No water
12) Among vertebrates, uric acid is the chief nitrogenous waste in birds
and: 12415069
a) Fishes b) Amphibians
c) Reptiles d) Mammals
13) The elimination of one gram of urea nitrogen needs: 12415070
a) One ml of
water b) 50 ml of water
c) 500 ml of water d) 1000 ml of water
14) One ml of water is required to eliminate one gram of nitrogen in the
form of:
12415071
a) Ammonia b) Urea
c) Uric acid d) purine
15) The animals which excrete urea as the nitrogenous waste are called
as: 12415072
a) Ammonotelic b) Ureotelic
c) Uricotelic d) Citrutelic
16) Hydra is a: 12415073
a) Protozoan b) Sponge
c) Cnidarian d) Flatworm
17) The tubular excretory system ending in flame cells is characteristic
of; 12415074
a) Cnidarians b) Flatworms
c) Annelids d) Poriferans
18) The excretory organs of earthworm are segmentally arranged. 12415075
a) Protonephridia
b) Metanephridia
c) Malpighian
tubules d) Nephrons
19) Each segment of earthworm has ____ metanephridia: 12415076
a) one b) two
c) three d) four
20) The excretory organs of insects are the: 12415077
a) Nephridia b) Malpighian tubules
c) Nephron d) Kidneys
21) The malpighian tubules remove nitrogenous wastes from the: 12415078
a) Lymph b) Haemolymph
c) Pseudocoel d) Haemoglobin
22) The animals whose excretory system is structurally associated with
the digestive tract are the: 12415079
a) Vertebrates b) Annelids
c) Coelenterates d)
Insects
23) The ancestors of vertebrates are the:
12415080
a) Invertebrates b)
Invertebrate chordates
c) Chordates
d) Echinodermates
24) If an animal is found in Hypotonic aquatic medium the nitrogenous
waste excreted is: 12415081
a) Urea b) Ammonia
c) Uric acid d) None of above
25) Which of the following nitrogenous waste is produced in the body of Hydra: 12415082
a) Amino acid b) Ammonia
c) Urea d) Uric acid
26) Which of the following processes is responsible for lower water
content of Hydra than surrounding media: 12415083
a) Osmosis b) Diffusion
c) Osmoregulation d)
All of above
27) Which of the following has flame cells into the body: 12415084
a) Hydra b) Planarian
c) Earthworm d) Grasshopper
28) Nitrogenous wastes are formed due to the breakdown of the: 12415085
a) Carbohydrates b)
Fats
c) Proteins d)
None of above
29) Flame cells are so called
because: 12415086
a) They produce light
b) They have flagella which beat
like candle flame
c) They have glowing
capacity
d) None of above
30) The wastes in planaria are excreted to exterior through: 12415087
a) Pharynx
b)
Anus
c) Excretory pore d) Nephridiopore
31) Each nephridium in earthworm opens to the exterior by 12415088
a) Nephridiostome b)
Nephridiopore
c) Excretory pore d) Both a & b
32) The nephridium of earthworm opens into the
coelom by: 12415089
a) Nephridiopore b) Coelomic duct
c) Nephridiostome d) None of above
33) Which of the following openings have cilia? 12415090
a) Nephrostome b) Nephridiopore
c) Excretory pore d) Both a & b
34) Nephridia of earthworm extract their waste materials from: 12415091
a) Blood b) Body fluid
c) Coelomic fluid d) Gut
35) The distal blind end of Malpighian tubules in grasshopper bathes
freely in:
12415092
a) Digestive tract b) Haemocoel
c) Pseudocoel
d) None of above
36) The nitrogenous wastes formed in the body of earthworm are: 12415093
a) Ammonia b) Urea
c) Uric acid d) Both a &b
37) Chief nitrogenous waste produced by the
grasshopper is: 12415094
a) Ammonia b) Urea
c) Uric acid d) Both a & b
38) Malpighian tubules of grasshopper open into: 12415095
a) Fore gut b) Mid gut
c) Hind gut d) Coelom
iii)
Liver
1)
The prime form of the metabolic waste of amino acids is: 12415096
a) ammonia b) urea
c) uric acid d) urine
2) Urea
is the nitrogenous waste produced from the metabolism of: 12415097
a) Nucleic acids b)
Inorganic acids
c) Amino acids d) Uric acid
3) Bilirubin
is the end product of the breakdown of: 12415098
a) Myoglobin b) Haemoglobin
c) Prothrombin d) Insulin
4) Of
all the excretory products, the principal one is the: 12415099
a) Urea b) Ammonia
c) Uric acid d) Amino acid
5) One
molecule of urea is formed in the liver from two molecules of ammonia and one
of: 12415100
a) Amino acid
b) Uric acid
c) Carbon dioxide d)
Carbon monoxide
6) In
the human liver, ammonia and citrulline chemically combine together to form: 12415101
a) Ornithine b) Creatine
c) Pyrimidine
d) Arginosuccinate
7) Arginase
splits the arginine to form urea and: 12415102
a) Citrulline b) Ornithine
c) Creatinine d) Histidine
8)
Liver helps to synthesize: 12415103
a) Lipids b)
Cholesterol
c) Lipoproteins d) All of the above
9)
Detoxification of food additive, pesticides and drugs is an important
function of human: 12415104
a) Kidney b) Spleen
c) Liver d) Pancreas
10) Nitrogenous wastes e.g. ammonia, urea
& uric acid are synthesized in: 12415105
a) Digestive system b) Blood
c) Liver d)
Kidney
11)
Which organ is the central station of metabolism? (Board
2014) 12415106
a) Liver b) Kidney
c) Spleen d) Skin
12) Number of ammonia molecules
required to produce one molecule of urea:
(Board
2014) 12415107
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
iv) Human
kidney
1) Mammalian
kidney including human is adapted to conserve water by over _______ %
reabsorption of glumerular filtrate: 12415108
a)
90 b)
99
c)
99.5 d)
99.9
2) The
capillaries network present at Henle’s loop is called 12415109
a)
Afferent b)
Efferent
c)
Peritubular d)
Vasa recta
3) Glumerulus
takes blood from: 12415110
a)
Afferent arteriole
b)
Efferent arteriole
c)
Afferent tubules
d) Peritubular capillaries
4) Re-absorption
of water from collecting tubules back to kidney is under the control of
hormone: 12415111
a)
Aldosterone b) Thyroid hormone
c)
ADH d) Insuline
5) The basic functional unit of vertebrate
kidney is the: 12415112
a)
Neuron b) Enteron
c)
Nephron d) Nephridium
6) The central cavity of the kidney is known as
the 12415113
a)
Hilus b) Glomerulus
c)
Pelvis d) Urethra
7) A duct from each human kidney which opens
into the urinary bladder is called:
a)
Urethra b) Ureter 12415114
c)
Vagina d) Catheter
8) The cup-shaped inner end of each nephron of
the human kidney is called:
12415115
a)
Glomerulus b) Malpighian capsule
c)
Bowman's capsule d) Renal capsule.
9) The human kidney is internally differentiated
into the: 12415116
a)
Epidermis and cortex
b)
Epidermis and medulla
c)
Cortex and medulla
d)
Cortex and pith
10)Bowman's
capsule of the nephron of man surrounds the glomerulus which is a cluster of: 12415117
a)
Arteries b) Veins
c)
Capillaries d) All of the above
11) All the collecting tubules of human kidney
finally discharge into the: 12415118
a)
Hilus b) Ureter
c)
Pelvis d) Urinary bladder
12) The
nitrogenous wastes are extracted from the human blood by means of:
12415119
a)
Nephrons b) Glomerulus
c)
Nephridia d) Neurons
13) The glomerular filtrate contains numerous
useful substances which are reabsorbed in the: 12415120
a)
Proximal tubule b) Loop of Henle
c)
Distal tubule d) Collecting duct
14) The increased water supply to the human body
results in decreased secretion of the hormone: 12415121
a)
Pituitary b) Oxytocin
c)
Antidiuretic d) Insulin
15) With each cardiac beat kidneys receive_________
% of blood: 12415122
a)
1 b) 2
c)
20 d) 30
16) The absorption of sodium in the ascending limb
of the loop of Henle is controlled by a hormone known as:12415123
a)
Antidiuretic b) Aldosterone
c)
Progesterone d) Testosterone
17) Lithotripsy is the non-surgical technique used
to break up and remove stones that form in the: 12415124
a)
Kidney b) Ureter
c)
Gall bladder d) All of the above
18) The human abdominal cavity is lined by a thin
epithelium called: 12415125
a)
Ectoderm b) Endoderm
c)
Peritoneum d) Epidermis
19) The incidence of kidney stones of
calcium phosphate is: 12415126
a)
10% b)
15%
c)
25% d)
70%
20) On which side of the body kidneys are present
in man: 12415127
a)
dorsal side b) ventral side
c)
lateral side d) none of these
21) The depression present in the central part of kidney is called: 12415128
a)
Cavity b) Groove
c)
Hilus d) None of these
22) Which of the following parts in man has
sphincter muscles at the base: 12415129
a)
Kidney b) Ureter
c)
Bladder d) All of these
23) Which of the following mechanism of nephron prevents loss of usefull substances? 12415130
a)
Filtration b) Reabsorption
c)
Secretion d) All of above
24) Incidence of uric acid stone is:
(Board 2013) 12415131
a)
5% b) 10%
c)
15% d) 70%
25) The incidence of calcium oxlate type stones of
kidney is: (Board 2014,15,16) 12415132
a) 50% b) 60%
c) 15% d) 70%
26) Urine leaves the kidney through a duct called: (Board 2016) 12415133
a) Urethra b) Pelvis
c) Ureter
d) Nephron
(3)
THERMOREGULATION
1) The maintenance of the internal temperature
of the body within a tolerable range is designated as 12415134
a)
Osmoregulation b)
Thermostat
c)
Thermometer d)
Thermoregulation
2) Animals
who are capable of varying degrees of endothermic heat production but generally
do not regulate their temperature are
called. 12415135
a)
Endotherms b)
Ecotherms
c)
Heterotherms d)
Poikilotherms
3) Sebum
excreted from sebaceous glands on our skin protect from 12415136
a)
Overheating b)
Overcooling
c)
Microorganism d) Sunlight
4) The
chemicals produced by blood cells and pathogens during disease infection are 12415137
a)
Pyrexia b) Pyrogens
c)
Hypoxanthine d) Ornithine
5) The
animals use saliva and urine for evaporative cooling 12415138
a)
Dogs b) Bats
c)
Lizards d) Man
6) Which of
the following is not endothermic? 12415139
a)
Bird
b)
Amphibian
c)
Flying insect
d)
Mammal
7) Bats and humming birds are included in:
a) Ectotherms b) Endotherms 12415140
c)
Heterotherms d) Poikilotherms
8) Mechanism involved in heat production through
hormones is: 12415141
a)
Shivering thermogenesis
b)
Non-shivering thermogenesis
c)
Thermogenesis
d)
Humoral thermogenesis
9) In
mammals, the organ of thermoregulation is the: 12415142
a)
Ear b) Muscle
c)
Skin d) Mouth cavity
10) On a cool day human temperature may be several
degrees lower in the arms and legs than in the: 12415143
a)
Head b) Face
c)
Trunk d) Neck
11) Most land mammals respond to cold by rising
their. 12415144
a)
Head b) Tail
c)
Fur d) Legs
12) A very thick layer of insulating fat lying just
beneath the skin & called blubber in:
a)
Whales 12415145
b)
Seals
c)
Whales and seals
d)
None of the above
13) Evaporative cooling is accomplished in bats by
using saliva and: 12415146
a)
Feces b) Bile
c)
Urine d) Tears
14) In human beings, the homeostatic thermostat is
present in a part of the brain called as: 12415147
a)
Cerebrum b) Hypothalamus
c)
Thalamus d) Cerebellum
15) In bacterial and viral infections, there occurs
an increase in the, number of:
12415148
a)
Erythrocytes b) Leucocytes
c)
Platelets d) Antibodies
16) Pyrexia which is an increase in the normal
human body temperature helps in stimulating the protective mechanisms against
the: 12415149
a)
Viruses b) Bacteria
c)
Pathogens d) Parasites
17) The fever causing substances in man are called
as: 12415150
a)
Pathogens b) Poisons
c)
Pyrogens d) Pyrexia
18) Flushing of skin occurs due to: 12415151
a)
Vasodilation b) Vasoconstriction
c)
Vasopressin d) None of these
Short questions
1)
OSMOREGULATION
Q.1. Define homeostasis. (Board 2007,13) 12415152
Q.2. What is osmoregulation? (Board 2009) 12415153
Q.3. Define the term
excretion. (Board 2006) 12415154
Q.4. Explain thermoregulation. (Board
2009) 12415155
Q.5. What do hypotonic, hypertonic and isotonic environment mean for a cell?
(Board 2007,10) 12415156
Q.6. What are osmoconformers.
(Board 2006,07,08) 12415157
Q.7. What are hydrophytes? What are their important adaptations? (Board 2014) 12415158
Q.8. Describe xerophytes and their adaptations. (Board 2006,15) 12415159
Q.9. What
are mesophytes? 12415160
Q.10.
How do cartilaginous fishes maintain
lower internal salt concentration than sea water? 12415161
Q.11. What is the name of the chemical which is
retained by some marine cartilaginous
fishes for protection against urea? 12415162
Q.12. What
role has osmoregulation played in the distribution of plants and animals? 12415163
Q.13. Name
the structures of fresh water protozoan which are meant for osmoregulation. 12415164
Q.14. How
do many fresh water animals including
Fishes remove excess water from the body? 12415165
Q.15. What are osmoconformers,
as animals? Quote examples. 12415166
Q.16. What are osmoregulators? or
Differentiate between osmocoformer & osmoregulators. (Board 2014,16) 12415167
Q.17. Define anhydrobiosis. (Board 2009, 14) 12415168
2) EXCRETION
Q.1. Why
are leaves said to be excretophores? 12415169
Q.2. In which animals is ammonia excreted as the
chief nitrogenous waste? 12415170
Q.3. Which
groups of animals excrete
nitrogenous waste in the form of uric acid? 12415171
Q.4. What is protonephridium? 12415172
Q.5. What
are the excretory organs of insects known as? (Board 2010) 12415173
Q.6. What are flame cells? Why are these called so? (Board
2014) 12415174
Q.7. What is haemolymph? 12415175
Q.8. How
does human liver support the excretory role of kidney? 12415176
Q.9. What are juxtamedullary
nephrons? 12415177
Q.10. Differentiate between Bowman's capsule and
glomerulus in the kidney of man. 12415178
Q.11. Explain peritubular capillaries in the
kidney. 12415179
Q.12. Explain
vasa recta in a mammalian
kidney. 12415180
Q.13. In which part of the nephron is water extracted back into the kidney, from
the glomerular filtrate? 12415181
Q.14. Name the hormone which promotes uptake of
sodium from the glomerular filtrate. 12415182
Q.15. What is the function of the antidiuretic
hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary? OR How ADH
function? (Board
2013) 12415183
Q.16. What
will be the effect of decreased water supply to the human body? 12415184
Q.17. Explain the two metabolic diseases viz.
hypercalcemia and hyperoxaluria.
(Board 2006) 12415185
Q.18. Define lithotripsy. (Board
2006,2009,13,16) 12415186
Q.19. Explain Extracorporeal shock wave
lithotripsy. 12415187
Q.20. What is a renal failure? 12415188
Q.21. Explain dialysis in its clinical application. 12415189
Q.22. Name the types of dialysis. 12415190
Q.23. Describe hemodialysis.
(Board
2015) 12415191
Q.24. Describe peritoneal dialysis. 12415192
Q.25. What is uremia? (Board 2013) 12415193
Q.26. Differentiate between afferent arteriole and effent arteriole.
(Board
2016) 12415194
5) THERMOREGULATION
Q.1. What are Homeotherms and Poikilotherms
type of animals?
(Board
2013) 12415195
Q.2. Differentiate between ectotherm and
endotherm. (Board
2013) 12415196
Q3. Define Heterotherms.
(Board 2015) 12415197
Q.4. Explain
the process of panting with example. (Board 2013) 12415198
Q.5. What is shivering thermogenesis? 12415199
Q.6. What is vasodilation? 12415200
Q.7. What is vasoconstriction? 12415201
Q.8. What is blubber and in which animals is it
found? 12415202
Q.9. Define feedback mechanism. 12415203
Q.10. What is homeostatic thermostat in the human
body which maintains normal temperature? 12415204
Q.11. What are fever-causing chemicals known as?
(Board
2007,08) 12415205
Q.12. Suggest another name for fever or high
temperature. 12415206
Q.13. Is fever useful in any respect?12415207
Q.14. Which
kind of blood cells of man
increase in number during bacterial or
viral infections? 12415208
Q.15. How does human body cope with cold
environment? 12415209
Q.16. How is evaporative-cooling brought about in
terrestrial mammals so as to reduce increasing body temperature?
12415208
Q.17. In
mammals, skin is adapted to be
an organ of thermoregulation.
How?
12415209
Q.18. How the temperature of different parts of the
human body does differ on a cool day? 12415210
Q.19. What
are the structural adaptation of animals for regulation of heat? (Board 2013) 12415211
Q.20. What is the narrow range of mammalian body
temperature? 12415212
Q.21. How does transfer of heat between an animal
and its environment takes place, principally? 12415213
Q.22. What are the kinds of the animals,
based on the source of their heat production? 12415214
Q.23. Differentiate
b/w shievering and non-shievering thermogenesis. (Board 2014,15)
12415215
Q.24. Sketch
the metabolic pathway of urea. (Board 2014) 12415216
Q.25. What
are pyrogens? (Board 2013)
12415217
Q.26. What
are heat shock proteins? (Board 2016)
12415218
UNIT 16
Support And Movements
Multiple
Choice Questions
Exercise
1) Which of these is a direct
source of energy for muscle contraction? 12416028
a) ATP b)
Creatine phosphate
c) Lactic acid d) Both a and b
2) When muscle contracts 12416029
a) Sarcomere increases in
size
b) Myosin slides past Actin
c) Lactic acid is produced
d) Both a and b
3) Which of the following
changes occur when skeletal muscle contracts. 12416030
a) The A band shorten
b) The I band shorten
c) The Z-line slide father
apart
d) The Actin filament
contract
4) Thin filament in myofibrils
consist of
a) Actin, tropomyosin,
troponin 12416031
b) Z-line
c) Myosin
d) Sarcomere
5) The contraction of striated
muscle is initiated by the release of energy in the presence of 12416032
a) Acetylcholine
b) Calcium ion
c) Chloride ion
d) Iron
6) In the mammalian skeleton
there is a distinct synovial joint between the:12416033
a) Bones of the cranium
b) Humerus and ulna
c) Sacrum of illium
d) Sternum and floating ribs
7) Which of the following
is a bone of axial skeleton? 12416034
a) Rib b) Shoulder girdle
c) Pelvis d) Femur
8) Vertebral column includes : 12416035
a) Sacrum
b) The coccyx
c) Cervical, thoracic &
lumbar vertebrae
d) All of the above
9) In mammal the number of
cervical vertebrae are: 12416036
a) No definite number
b) Seven
c) Eleven
d) Varies with the size of
neck
10) Brain is protected by: 12416037
a) Cranium b) Skull
c) Orbits d) All of the above
11) Which of the following is plantigrade?
a) Rabbit b)
Monkey 12416038
c) Horse d) carnivore
12) Brachioradialis uplift is caused by: 12416039
a) Radius b) Ulna
c) Both a & b d) Humerus
13) Muscle fatigue is caused by 12416040
a) CO2
b) Accumulation of lactic
acid
c) Fumaric acid
d) Ethyl alcohol
14) Cardiac muscles are: 12416041
a) Voluntary
b) Involuntary
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
15) Moulting occurs in arthropod at the:
a) Immature stage 12416042
b) Mature stage
c) Both stages
d) Do not undergo molting
2) Concept and need Movements in Plants
1) The membrane of vacuole is
called:
12416043
a) Protoplast b) Tonoplast
c) Plasma membrane d)
Plasmodesmata
2) In herbaceous plants support
is provided by: 12416044
a) Collenchyma
b) Sclerenchyma
c) Hydrostatic pressure
d) Vascular bundles
3) Sclerenchyma cells includes
the types
12416045
a) Fibers (Trachcids) b) Sclerides
c) Vessels (Trachea) a) All of the above
4) Secondary growth occurs due
to cell division of 12416046
a) Vascular cambium
b) Cork cambium
c) Endodermis d) Both a & b
5) Autonomic movements are: 12416047
a) Tactic movements
b) Turgor movements
c) Growth movements
d) All of the above
6) Movement of chloroplast due
to cyclosis is the best example of 12416048
a) Phototactic movement
b) Chemotactic movement
c) Photonasty d) Phototropism
7) The collenchymas
cells have protoplast and usually lack: (Board 2015) 12416049
a) Primary wall b) Secondary wall
c) Middle wall d)
Vacuole
8) In the pulvinus of mimosa,
the rapid loss of turgor is caused by 12416050
a) Na+ b)
K+
c) Ca++ d) Mg++
9) Growth movements are of the
following types 12416051
a) Epinasty b) Hyponasty
c) Nutation d) All of the above
10) Paratonic movements includes 12416052
a) Tropic movement
b) Nastic movement
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
11) The movement in which the
principal stimulus is photoperiod 12416053
a) Phototopism b) Photonasty
c) Phototactic d) Thermonasty
12) Action of Venus fly trap is an example of. 12416054
a) Haptonastic
b) Nyctinasty
c) Thermonasty d)
Tactic movement
13) In the adult plants, the supporting cells are the: 12416055
a) Collenchymatous
cells
b) Parenchymatous
cells
c) Sclerenchymatous
cells
d) Aerenchymatous
cells
14) The living cells of the
epidermis, cortex and pith of the plant stem take in water by: 12416056
a) Imbibition b) Plasmolysis
c) Osmosis d) Diffusion
15) The collenchymatous
cells are highly lignified and are
found in the: 12416057
a) Epidermis b) Cortex
c) Pith d) Xylem
16) The membrane that
bounds the vacuole within a cell is called: 12416058
a) Cell membrane b) Protoplast
c) Tonoplast d) Ectoplast
17) The cell walls of
sclerenchymatous cells are usually impregnated with: 12416059
a) Silica b) Pectin
c) Lignin d) Subrin
18) The sclerenchyma cells found in seed coats and nut shells
are the: 12416060
a) Fibres b) Vessels
c) Tracheids d) Sclerides
19) Secondary growth occurs
due to cell division in: 12416061
a) Vascular cambium b) Cork cambium
c) Both a &
b d) None of the above
20) During secondary growth
in plants vascular cambium gives rise to the:
a) Secondary
xylem 12416062
b) Secondary phloem
c) Secondary xylem
and phloem
d) Primary xylem and phloem
21) In the older trees, the
active conducting portion of the wood is called: 12416063
a) Sapwood b) Heartwood
c) Cedar wood d) Cork
22) The movements of
locomotion of plants which are caused due to external stimuli are known as: 12416064
a) Tropic b) Paratonic
c) Tactic d) Nastic
23) Sleep movements are the
drooping and folding of leaves of some plants at night, due to turgor changes
in the cells of the: 12416065
a) Petioles b) Meristems
c) Pulvinus d) Lamina
24) The growth movements of
plant organs which are induced by external stimuli are called: 12416066
a) Nastic b) Paratonic
c) Tropic d) Turgor
25) The growth movements of plant organs that are induced by the
external stimuli which act upon them from all directions are called: 12416067
a) Tropic b) Nastic
c) Autonomic d) Turgor
26) The growth of the tip of a young stem slowly in a zigzag
manner due to the alternate changing in growth rate on opposite sides of the
apex is known as: 12416068
a) Mutation b) Nutation
c) Circumnutation d)
Guttation
27) The growth movement of
a plant organ which occurs in response to the stimulus of contact with a solid object is termed as: 12416069
a) Geotropsim b) Thigmotropism
c) Chemotropism d)
Heliotropism
28) The movements of sperms of liverworts, mosses and
ferns towards the archegonium is called: (Board
2015,16) 12416070
a) Chemotropic b) Chemotactic
c) Sleep
movement d) Nutation
29) The folded leaflets of
Mimosa regain their turgidity after about: 12416071
a) Two minutes b) Five minutes
c) Ten minutes d) Fifteen minutes
30) The stem shows positive
phototropism but negative: 12416072
a) Thigomotropism b) Chemotropism
c) Hydrotropism d) Geotropism
31) The movement of plant
organs in response to the stimulus of water is called: 12416073
a) Aquatropism b) Haptotropism
c) Geotropism d) Hydrotropism
32) The shoot is negatively
geotropic as well as negatively: 12416074
a) Hydrotropic b) Phototropic
c) Chemotropic d) Thigmotropic
33) The fluctuations of
light and temperature induce nastic movements in many leaves and: 12416075
a) Stem b) Roots
c) Flowers d) Branches
34) The movements of the
leaves of venus fly trap to capture the insect prey are: 12416076
a) Photonastic b) Chemonastic
c) Haptonastic d) Thermonastic
35) The movement of plant
organ in response to the variations in the intensity of light is called: 12416077
a) Nyctinasty b) Photonasty
c) Thermonasty d) Hyponasty
36) Photonasty and
thermonasty are the kinds of: 12416078
a) Epinasty b) Hyponasty
c) Nyctinasty d) Chemonasty
37) The hyponastic
movements of plant organs are considered to be due to the growth hormone
called: 12416079
a) Auxins
b) Gibberellins
c) Auxins and
gibberellins
d) None of the above
38) Action of venus fly
trap is: (Board 2014) 12416080
a) Nyctinasty b) Photonasty
c) Haptonasty d) Thermonasty
39) The
inactive non conducting wood is called: (Board 2014) 12416081
a) Heart wood b) Sap wood
c) Cork d) Bark
40) Which
of the following cells have angular thickening in their primary walls:
(Board 2016) 12416082
a)
Collenchyma b) Sclerenchyma
c) Fibers d) Vessels
3) Skeleton
and Types
1) The most complex exoskeleton
is present in group. 12416083
a) Corals b)
Mollusks
c) Arthropods d) Echinoderms
2) Bone forming cells are called 12416084
a) Stem cell b)
Osteoblast
c) Osteocyte d) Osteoclast
3) Bone dissolving cell are
called 12416085
a) Stem cell b)
Osteoblast
c) Osteocyte d) Osteoclast
4) Fibro cartilage is present in 12416086
a) External pinnae of ear b) Epiglottis
c) At moveable joints d) Both a & b
5) In animals, the
exoskeleton is secreted by the: 12416087
a) Ectoderm b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm d) Gastroderm
6) The outermost layer of
the exoskeleton is called: 12416088
a) Epicuticle
b) Procuticle
c) Endocuticle
d) Exocuticle
7) The bulk of the exoskeleton of arthropods is made up of 12416089
a) Cuticle b) Suberin
c) Chitin d) Lignin
8) The exoskeleton of
mollusks is in the form of a shell which is chemically composed of: 12416090
a) Sodium phosphate
b) Calcium carbonate
c) Silica
d) Sand grains
9) The most abundant salt
found in the bones is the: 12416091
a) Calcium carbonate
b) Calcium phosphate
c) Calcium
chloride
d) Calcium sulphate
10) The living cells of the cartilage are called: 12416092
a) Chondroblasts
b) Chondrocytes
c) Osteoblasts
d) Osteocytes
4) Human skeleton
1) Cranium consists on bones 12416093
a) 6 b) 8
c) 10 d) 12
2) The number of facial bones in man. 12416094
a) 8 b) 10
c) 12 d) 14
3) Human vertebral column
consists of vertebrae. 12416095
a) 22 b) 33
c) 30 d) 32
4) Vertebrae present in neck are
called
12416096
a) Thoracic b) Cervical
c) Lumbar d) Pelvic
5) Cranium is the bony
box of the skull of man which lodges the;
12416097
a) Spinal cord
b) Brain
c) Pituitary
d) Medulla oblongata
6) The five vertebrae of
the lower region of the back of man are known as the: 12416098
a) Cervical vertebrae
b) Sacral vertebrae
c) Lumbar vertebrae
d) caudal vertebrae
7) The pectoral girdle of man consists of:
12416099
a) Scapula and
coracoid
b) Suprascapula und clavicle
c) Scapula,
suprascapula and clavicle
d) Clavicle and coracoid
8) Phalanges is the name
of the bones of the:
12416100
a) Fingers b) Toes
c) Ankle d) Fingers and toes
9) The bones of the human wrist are known as: 12416101
a) Tarsals b) Carpals
c) Metacarpals d) Metatarsals
10) Each of the hip bone of
the pelvic girdle of man is formed by the fusion of three embryonic bones which
are named as: 12416102
a) Femur,tibia and
fibula
b) IIeum, ischium and humerus
c) Ileum, ischium and
pubis
d) Tibia, fibula and pubis
11) Which one is not a bone of axial skeleton? (Board 2014) 12416103
a) Ribs b) Sternum
c)Pelvic d) Cranium
12) Which of the following bones is of axial skeleton? (Board 2016) 12416104
a) Humerus b) Femur
c) Tibia d) Rib
5) Joints
1) Joints which are classified on the basis of
structure. 12416105
a) Fibrous joints b) Cartilaginous
c) Synovial joints d) All of the above
2) The joints which allow
free movement and contain cavity filled with fluid are called: 12416106
a) Fibrous
joints b) Cartilaginous joints
c) Synovial
joints d) Pivot joints
3) Hinge joint allows the
movement of bone in two directions and is examplified by the: 12416107
a) Shoulder
joint b) Knee
joint
c) Hip joint d) Neck joint
4) Ball and socket joint which allows the movement of bone in
several directions is
a) Shoulder
joint 12416108
b) Hip joint
c) Shoulder and hip
joints
d) None of the above
6) Deformities of skeleton____ Repair of broken Bones
1) A disease caused by
low calcium in the blood is called: 12416109
a) Tetany b) Cramp
c) Tetanus d) Paralysis
2) Estrogen replacement therapy
(ERT) offers the best protection against. 12416110
a) Arthritis
b) Cleft palate
c) Microcephaly
d) Osteoporotic bone
fractures
3) A disease which mostly
occurs in aged women is: 12416111
a) Osteoarthritis b) Osteoporosis
c) Osteomalacia d) Osteocalcia
4) Rickets is a disease of children causing bowed legs and
deformed: 12416112
a) Head b) Pelvis
c) Chest d) Arms
5) The first phase of the repair of a simple fracture is the: 12416113
a) Callus
formation
b) Haemtoma formation
c) Bony callus
formation
d) Remodelling
6) Which one of the following
is not a joint disease? (Board 2014) 12416114
a) Arthritis b) Sciatica
c) Disc slip d) Spondylosis
7) A condition in which palatine process of
maxilla and palatine fail to fuse is:
(Board 2015) 12416115
a) Microcephaly b) Cleft palate
c) Fused palate d) Osteoarthritis
7) Muscles _ Arrangements of skeletal muscles
1) The muscles of the
wall of heart are called: 12416116
a) Smooth muscles b)
Cardiac muscles
c) Striated
muscles d) Sphincter muscles
2) Skeletal muscle is
also called: 12416117
a) Striped
muscle
b) Striated muscle
c) Striped or striated
muscle
d) None of the above
3) The unit of structure
of myofibril lies between two successive Z-lines and is known as the: 12416118
a) Sarcolemma b) Sarcoplasm
c) Sarcomere d) Myolemma
4) The diameter of myosin
myofilaments is about: 12416119
a) 14 nm b) 16 nm
c) 7 nm d) 8 nm
5) A large number of
myofilaments together constitute 12416120
a) Muscle fibre b) Muscle
c) Myofibril d) Muscle cell
6) A muscle fibre
contracts on receiving the nerve impulse which is carried from the sarcolemma to every myofibril by the:
a) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
12416121
b) T-tubules
c) Calcium ions
d) Myofilaments
7) The hypothesis of
"Sliding filament model of muscle contraction was suggested by: 12416122
a) H. Huxley and A.F.
Huxley
b) Bradfrod
c ) Julian Huxley
d) Haeckel
8) The direct source of
energy for muscle contraction is: 12416123
a) ATP b) Creatine phosphate
c) Lactic acid d) Protein
9) When muscle contracts: 12416124
a) Sarcomere
increases in size
b) Myosin slide pass actin
c) Lactic acid is
produced
d) Both a and b
10) Which of the following
changes occur when skeletal muscle
contracts? 12416125
a) The A-hands
shorten
b) The I-bands shorten
c) The Z-Iines slide
further apart
d) The actin filaments contract
11) The thin filament in myofibril consists of: 12416126
a) Actin, tropomyosin, troponin
b) Z-line
c) Myosin
d) Sarcomere
12) The contraction of
striated muscle is initiated by the release of energy in the presence of: 12416127
a) Acetylcholine b) Calcium ion
c) Chloride ion d) Iron
13) The total number of
skeletal muscles in the human body is: 12416128
a) 600 b) 625
c) 650 d) 675
14) The bones are held
together at the joints through the: 12416129
a) Tendons b) Ligaments
c) Fibrins d) Filaments
15) The extension
(straightening) at the elbow joint of man is brought about by a big and
powerful muscle termed as:
12416130
a) Biceps brachii b) Brachialis
c) Brachioradialis d) Triceps brachii
16) The flexion (bending)
at the elbow joint of man is produced by the muscles called:
a) Biceps brachii,
brachialis and brachioradialis 12416131
b) Brachialis and
biceps brachii
c) Brachioradialis
and biceps hrachii
d) Triceps brachii
and the brachialis
17) The brachialis muscle
on the contraction lifts (bends) the: 12416132
a) Radius b) Humerus
c) Ulna d) Fibula
8) Locomotion in
Protoctista and invertebrates
1) The movements of Euglena
are carried on by the: 12416133
a) Cilium b) FIagellum
c) Pseudopodium d) Tentacle
2) The locomotary organs
of the protozoans are: 12416134
a) Pseudopodia
b) Flagella
c) Cilia
d) Pseudopodia,
flagella and cilia
3) The amoeboid movements
of the cell body of amoeba brought about by means of: 12416135
a) Flagella b) Cilia
c) Pseudopodia d)
Muscle contraction
4) Setae and muscles both
are involved in the locomotion of: 12416136
a) Jelly fish b) Earthworm
c) Cockroach d) Snail
5) Tube feet are
locomotary organs of:
a) Jelly fish b) Snail 12416137
c) Cuttle fish d) Star fish
9) Locomotion and skeleton
in vertebrates
1) Which of the following is
plantigrade? 12416138
a) Rabbits b)
Monkeys
c) Horses d)
Carnivores
2) The skeletal muscles
are attached with the bones through the: 12416139
a) Ligaments b) Tendons
c) Sarcolemma d) Myofibrils
3) The mammals which walk
only on the tips of their toes are called: 12416140
a) Plantigrade b) Unguligrade
c) Digitigrade d) Brachigrade
4) A common digitigrade
animal is the:
12416141
a) Monkey b) Goat
c) Horse d) Dog
5) The
supracoracoid muscles provide power for the: (Board 2015) 12416142
a) Upward stroke
b) Downward stroke
c) Recovery stroke
d) Neutral stroke
Short
questions
PLANTS
SUPPORT AND MOVEMENT
1.
What provides support in plants and animals? 12416143
2.
What is Turgor pressure? 12416144
3.
What is Bundle cap? 12416145
4.
What is tonoplast? (Board 2007) 12416146
5.
Differentiate between fibers or
sclereides. (Board 2014)
12416147
6. What are vessels or tracheae? 12416148
7. Define secondary growth. 12416149
8. Which meristems are involved
in secondary growth? 12416150
9. What does growth ring
indicates? 12416151
10. What is function of heart
wood? 12416152
11. What is Sapwood and heartwood? 12416153
12. What is Callus or Wood tissue? or
12416154
How calles is formed? 12416155
13. What is difference
between animal and plant movements? 12416156
14. What are main types of
movements in plants? 12416157
15. What are Autonomic movements?
Also give their main types. 12416158
16. Define Tactic Movements. 12416159
17. What is Phototactic
Movement? (Board 2007, 15)
12416160
18. What is chemotactic
Movement? (Board
2015) 12416161
19. What is turgor Movement? 12416162
20. What are growths
Movements?
12416163
21. Differentiate between
Epinasty and Hyponasty. (Board
2009,14)
12416164
22. Define Nutation. 12416165
23. What are Tropic
Movements?
12416166
24. Define Phototropism. (Board 2008) 12416167
25. Define Thigmotropism.
(Board 2008)
12416168
26. Define Chemotropism. 12416169
27. Define Hydrotropism. 12416170
28. Define Geotropism or
Gravitropism. (Board 2013) 12416171
29. What are Nastic Movements? 12416172
30. Define Photonasty. (Board 2016) 12416173
31. Define Thermonasty.
(Board 2016)
12416174
32. Define Haptonastic
movement? Give example. (Board 2014)
12416175
33. What are sleep
movements? 12416176
34. What is Nyctinasty? 12416177
SKELETON
35. What is skeleton? 12416178
36. What are different types
of skeleton? 12416179
37. What is cartilage? 12416180
38. What are chondrocytes? 12416181
39. What is fibro cartilage?
(Board 2016) 12416182
40. What is the hyaline
cartilage?
(Board 2016) 12416183
Support and Movements
41. What is hydroskeleton or
hydrostatic skeleton? 12416184
42. Define Exoskeleton. (Board 2015) 12416185
43. What is the composition
of exoskeleton? 12416186
44. What is Moulting or Ecdysis? 12416187
45. What is Endoskeleton? 12416188
46. What is the composition
of Endoskeleton? 12416189
47. What do know about
compact bone? 12416190
48. What are characteristics
of spongy bone? 12416191
49. Name the cells associated with
bone. (Board 2014) 12416192
50. What is Axial Skeleton? 12416193
51. Name the bones of cranium. 12416194
52. Give composition of exoskeleton in
mollusces and arthropods. (Board 2015) 12416195
53. Name
the bones of facial region. (Board 2016) 12416196
54. What
is Vertebral Column? 12416197
55. What
is Sacrum? 12416198
56. What
is Coccyx? 12416199
57. Why
lower two pairs of ribs are called "floating ribs"? 12416200
58. What
is appendicular skeleton? 12416201
59. What
does pectoral girdle comprise? 12416202
60. Name
different bones of fore limb. 12416203
61. What are important
features of pelvic girdle? 12416204
62. Name different parts of
hind Limb. 12416205
63. What is sciatica? (Board
2009,16)
12416206
64. What is spondylosis? 12416207
65. What is cleft palate? (Board
2014) 12416208
66. What is Arthritis? 12416209
67. What is Osteoporosis? 12416210
68. What is Osteomalcia? 12416211
69. What is Rickets? Give
its treatment. (Board 2014) 12416212
70. What is Disc -Slip? (Board 2008, 10) 12416213
71. How many steps are involved in
repairing of broken bones? 12416214
72. What is closed
reduction? 12416215
73. What is Open reduction? Give
its treatment. (Board
2014) 12416216
74. What is hematoma formation? (Board
2016) 12416217
JOINTS
74. What are joints? 12416218
75. In how many categories
joints are classified? Name them. 12416215
76. What different classes of
joints on the basis of structure? 12416219
77. What are Hinge Joints? 12416220
78. What are Ball &
Socket Joints? 12416221
79. What is Synovial joint?
(Board
2014) 12416222
MUSCLES
80. What are muscles? 12416223
81. What are smooth muscles? 12416224
82. What are cardiac
muscles? 12416225
83. Why heart muscles are
known as cardiac muscles? 12416226
84. What are cross bridges? 12416227
85. What do you understand
from "Rigor Mortis"? 12416228
86. Define
sarcomere. 12416229
87. What are skeletal
muscles? 12416230
88. What are tendons? 12416231
89. What is Muscle fibre? 12416232
90. What is sarcolemma and
Sar-coplasm? 12416233
91. What are Myofibrils? 12416234
92. What are Dark and light
bands in sarcomere? 12416235
93. What are H-zone and M-line in
A band of sarcomere? 12416236
94. What is T -system? 12416237
95. What are triads? 12416238
96. What is sliding filament
model?
12416239
97. What is a motor unit? 12416240
98. What are the sources of
energy for muscle contraction? (Board 2014) 12416241
99. What is other source of
energy for muscle contraction in addition to glucose?
12416242
100. What is muscle fatigue? (Board 2007) 12416243
101. What is Tetany? (Board 2007) 12416244
102. What is cramp? 12416245
103. What are different parts
of skeletal muscle? 12416246
104. What are ligaments and
tendons? (Board 2007, 09) 12416247
105. What is antagonistic
arrangement? 12416248
106. What are Brachialis &
brachioradialus? 12416249
107. Name different types of
muscles in vertebrates. 12416250
MOVEMENTS
IN ANIMALS
108. What are organs of
locomotion in Euglena, Paramecium and Amoeba?
12416251
109. What is Effective stroke? 12416252
110. What is Recovery stroke? 12416253
111. What is the type of
locomotion in Jellyfish and Earthworm? 12416254
112. What is mode of locomotion
in Cockroach? 12416255
113. How locomotion occurs in
Snail and mussels? 12416256
114. What are tube feet? 12416257
115. What is Swim bladder? 12416258
116. How wriggling occurs in
Amphibians? 12416259
117. What is Bipedal locomotion?
12416260
118. What is passive flight? What is Aerofoils? (Board 2007,14) 12416261
119. What is active flight? (Board 2007,09,13) 12416262
120. What is Plantigrade? 12416263
121. What are digitigrades? (Board 2009) 12416264
122. What is Unguligrade? (Board 2009) 12416265
UNIT 17
COORDINATION AND CONTROL
Multiple
Choice Questions
Exercise
1) The neuron set of Hydra lacks: 12417045
a) neurons
b)
dendrites
c)
connections
d)
direction of impulse flow
2) A nerve is a: 12417046
a)
Collection of neurons
b)
Concentration of dendrites and axons
c) Bundles
of axons or dendrites of neurons
d) bundle
of axons or dendrites, bounded by
connective tissue
3) Thyroid
gland produces: 12417047
a) T3, T4 and calcitonin
b) Calcitonin
c) Tri-iodothyroxine
d) Tetraiodothyroxine
4) What is the
number of cranial and spinal nerves in man 12417048
a) 12 and
31 b) 24
and 62
c) both a
and b d) none of the above
5) One of the following which is not related to others is: 12417049
a)
Cretinism b) Myxoedema
c)
Exophthalmic goiter
d) Diabetes mellitus
1) Introduction___Biological
Clock
1) Biorhythms
are called circadian which means about one day, so they are also called: 12417050
a) diurnal pace b) diurnal cadence
c) diurnal rhythms d) diurnal tempo
2) If the
biorhythms are less than or about 365 days, these rhythms in activity are
called: 12417051
a) circannual b) nutation
c) circumnutation d) both a & c
3) In living
things the behavioural activities occur at regular intervals which are called: 12417052
a) biorhythms b)
biological rhythms
c) musical rhythms d) both a & b
4) A major cause of Chlorosis is the shortage
of: 12417053
a) Iron b)
oxygen
c) nitrogen d) hydrogen
5) The commercial compound ethephon breaks down
to release ethene in plants and is applied to rubber plant to stimulate the
flow of: 12417054
a) latex b)
rubber
c) phloem sap
d) xylem sap
6) The condition known as chlorosis usually
arises from short supplies of: 12417055
a) manure b)
oxygen
c) mineral
nutrients d) water
7) The plants
are said to be etiolated, if they fail to form chlorophyll in the absence of:
a) Water b)
Salt 12417056
c) Light d)
Iron
8) In plants,
chlorosis is the condition of getting yellow due to shortage of: 12417057
a) Sodium b)
Sulphur
c)
Phosphorus d)
Minerals
9) Galls are
growths on plants that are induced by: 12417058
a) Ticks b)
Protozoans
c)
Parasites d) Fungi
2)Plant Hormones
1) Abscisic acid can be sprayed on tree crops to
regulate: 12417059
a) leaf drop b) shoot drop
c) cone drop d) fruit drop
2) Abscisic
acid inhibits stem growth notably during physiological stress, e.g.: 12417060
a) drought b) water-logging
c) both a
& b d)
none
3) Abscisic acid promotes closing of stomata
under conditions 12417061
a) water stress b) light stress
c) wind
stress d) temperature
stress
4) Auxins are: 12417062
a) Indole Acetic Acid (1AA)
b) cytokinins
c) gibberellins
d) abscisic acid
5) Auxins promote growth of roots from: 12417063
a) Cuttings b) calluses
c) both a & b d) layering
6) Cytokinins delay the aging of fresh leaf
crops, such as cabbage and lettuce as well as keeping flowers: 12417064
a) attached b) fresh
c) delayed d)
open
7) Cytokinins promote stem growth by cell
division in: 12417065
a) apical
meristem b) cambium
c) both a
& b d)
none
8) Ethene induces flowering in:
(Board
2014) 12417066
a) apple b)
pines
c) pineapple d) tomato
9) Ripening of tomatoes and citrus fruit is
stimulated by: 12417067
a) methane b) ethane
c) propane d) ethene
10) What is used in the brewing industry to
stimulate α-amylase production in barley and this promotes malting: 12417068
a) GA b) GA5
c) GA2
d) GA3
11) Gibberellins are produced commercially from: 12417069
a) viral
cultures
b) bacterial
cultures
c) algal cultures
d) fungal cultures
12) The only naturally occurring auxin is the:
a) Indole
acetic acid 12417070
b)
Naphthalene acetic acid
c) 2, 4 –
D
d) None of
the above
13) Flowering is
induced in pineapple by a growth hormone called: 12417071
a)
Gibberellins b) Abscisic
acid
c)
Cytokinins d) Ethene
3)
Coordination in animals____Receptors
1) Each type of the principal type of sensation
that we can experience e.g., pain, touch, sight, sound and so forth is called a
modality of: 12417072
a) regulation b) susceptibility
c) coordination d) sensation
2)
Mechanoreceptors detect stimuli of:
12417073
a) touch and pressure b) hearing
c) equilibrium
d) all of the above
3) Meissner's corpuscles lie in papillae which
extend into the ridges of the.
12417074
a) fingertips b) shoulder
c) elbows d)
thigh
4) Pain receptors are nearly 27 times more abundant than: 12417075
a) heat receptors b) wind receptors
c) cold
receptors d) rheo-receptors
5) The cold receptors are nearly 10 times more
abundant than: 12417076
a) heat receptors
b) temperature receptors
c) both a
& b
d) light
receptors
6) The elements of nervous system which help in
co-ordination are: 12417077
a) Receptors b) Neurons
c) Effectors d)
all of the above
7) The
principal effectors are: 12417078
a) glands b)
muscles
c) both a
& b d)
nerves
8) The
receptor may be: 12417079
a) A cell b)
Neuron ending
c) A receptor
organ d) All of above
9)
Thermoreceptors respond to: 12417080
a) Cold b)
Warmth
c) Light d)
Both a & b
10 Touch receptors are much more numerous in the
finger tips than in the skin of the: 12417081
a) Back b)
Neck
c) Legs d) Arm
11) The
components of nervous coordination are: 12417082
a)
Receptors and neurons
b)
Receptors and effectors
c) Neurons
and effectors
d)
Receptors, neurons and effectors
12) The receptor may be: 12417083
a) A
cell b) Neuron ending
c)
Receptor organ d) All of the above
13) The sensation of pain is produced by
(Board
2015) 12417084
a)
Mechanoreceptors b) Nociceptor
c)
Photorecptors d) Chemoreceptors
14) Of the touch receptors in our skin, those which receive deep pressure stimuli
are called: 12417085
a)
Meissner's corpuscles
b) Pacinian corpuscles
c)
Nociceptors
d) Mechanoreceptors
4)
Neuron_Synapse
1) The main transmitter for
synapses that lie
outside the central nervous
system is: 12417086
a) adrenaline b) acetylcholine
c) serotonin d) dopamine
2) Active
membrane potential is: 12417087
a) 0.05 volts b) 50 mv
c) Both a & b d) 0.07 volts
3) Associative Neurons are the neurons which
occur exclusively in the: 12417088
a) spinal cord
b) brain
c) notochord
d) both a
& b
4) In addition to neurons, there are also other cells, in the nervous system of higher animals and humans, called: 12417089
a) neuroglia b) ganglia
c) uroglia d)
somatoglia
5) In myelinated neurons the impulse jumps from
node to node (node of Ranvier). This is called: 12417090
a) myelinated
impulse
b) Jumping
impulse
c) saltatory
impulse
d) none of
these
6) In the sensory neurons, the single, elongated
dendrite is called a: 12417091
a) dendron b) dendroot
c) dendrof d)
dendria
7) In the unstimulated state, a neuron has a
membrane potential of approximately:
a) -40mV b)
-70mV 12417092
c) -50mV d)
-90mV
8) Which is not neurotransmitter? 12417093
a) nor-epinephrine
b) serotonin
c) dopamine d) L-dopa
9) Motor neurons form somatic nervous system,
which controls: 12417094
a) voluntary movements
b) involuntary movements
c) reflex
actions d) both b
& c
10) A vital role in the nutrition of neurons and
their protection by myelin sheath is played by: 12417095
a) neuroglia b) mesoglea
c) ganglia d)
endroglia
11) Neurophysiologists believe that the increased
permeability in neuron is due to the opening of specific pores in the membrane,
termed: 12417096
a) potassium
gates b) sodium gates
c) calcium
gates d) oxygen
gates
12) Resting
membrane potential in mv is:
a) 0.03 b)
-0.07 12417097
c) 0.05 d) -70.00
13) Sensory Neurons are the neurons which carry
nerve impulses from receptors to:
12417098
a) brain b)
spinal cord
c) notochord d) both a & b
14) Which ions are tenfold higher in concentration
outside than inside the membrane surface: 12417099
a) Sodium b)
Potassium
c) Calcium d) Nitrogen
15) The message is transmitted across synapse in
the form of chemical messenger, called:
a) Glial
transmitters 12417100
b)
Chemotransmitters
c)
Neurotransmitters
d)
Synotransmitters
16) The processes conducting Impulses away from
cell body are termed: 12417101
a) Dendrites b) Protrusions
c) Axons d)
Both a & c
17) There is no cytoplasmic connection between the
two neurons and microscopic gaps are left between them which are called: 12417102
a) Synapsis b) Aperture
c) Synapses d) Fissure
18) The chief morphological and physiological unit of
the nervous system is the: 12417103
a) Nephron b) Neuron
c) Reflex d)
Synapse
19) The changes
in the external and internal
environment are detected by the: 12417104
a) Sense
organs b) Receptors
c)
Effectors d) Teloreceptors
20) The
processes of the cell bodies of neurons which conduct impulses away from the
cell bodies and termed as the:
12417105
a)
Dendrons b)
Dendrites
c)
Axons d) Axoplasms
21) The groups
of ribosomes present in the cell body
of the neuron, which are associated with rough endoplasmic reticulum are called; 12417106
a) Meissner's corpuscles
b)
Pacinian corpuscles
c) Nissl's granules
d) Lysosome granules
22) The
processes which serve to conduct
impulses towards the cell body of the neuron are called: 12417107
a) Dendrons b) Axons
c) Dendrites d) Fibers
23) The sensory
neurons conduct impulses from the receptors to the: 12417108
a) Brain
b) Spinal cord
c) Central nervous system
d) Glands
24) The motor
neurons convey impulses from the central nervous system to the: 12417109
a) Muscles
b) Glands
c) Muscles or glands
d) Receptors
25) The
associative neurons of man are found in the: 12417110
a)
Brain
b) Brain
and the spinal cord
c) Spinal
cord
d)
Effectors
26) The
principal effectors are: 12417111
a) Muscles
b) Glands
c) Muscles or glands
d) None of the above
27) The
reflexes may be: 12417112
a)
Monosynaptic
b) Polysynaptic
c)
Monosynaptic or polysynaptic
d) None of the above
28) A nerve
impulse is a wave of electrochemical changes traveling along the length of the
neuron involving chemical reactions and movement of ions across the: 12417113
a) Synapse b) Cell wall
c) Cell membrane d)
Axon
29) The most
important of the many kinds of ions present in the nerve cell and the
surrounding fluid are the: 12417114
a) Calcium
ions
b) Sodium ions
c)
Potassium ions
d) Sodium
and potassium ions
30) The value of
resting membrane potential of the neuron is: 12417115
a) 0.05 volts b) 0.06 volts
c) -0.07 volts d)
0.08 volts
31) The value of
active membrane potential of the neurons is: 12417116
a) 50 millivolts
b) 6.0 millivolts
c) 70 millivolts
d) 80 millivolts
32) The normal
speed of the nerve impulse in the human body, per second is: 12417117
a) 80 meters b)
90 meters
c) 100 meters d) 110 metres
33) The microscopic gap between the axon endings of one neuron and the
dendrites of the other in a row is called.
(Board 2016) 12417118
a)
Synapsis b) Pairing
c)
Synapse d) Impulse
34) The most
common neurotransmitter is the ester called: 12417119
a) Dopamine b) Adrenaline
c) Acetylcholine d)
Serotonin
35) The net difference in charge between the inner
and outer surface of a non-conducting neuron
is called the: 12417120
a) resting membrane potential
b) active membrane potential
c) inactive membrane potential
d) both a & c
36) Electrical potential is a measure of the
capacity to do: 12417121
a) potential work
b) electrical
work
c) mechanical work
d) kinetic
work
37) Maximum speed of nerve impulse transmission is: (Board
2014) 12417122
a) 100 m/s b)
110 m/s
c)
120 m/s d)
130 m/s
38) Nissl's granules are group of:
(Board
2016) 12417123
a) Mesosomes b) Lysosomes
c)
Ribosomes d)
Chromosomes
5) Evolution of neRvous
system
1)
Diffused nervous system is found in:
12417124
a) Poriferans b) Platyhelminthes
c) Cnidarians d) Annelids
2) Hydra
shows: 12417125
a) diffused nervous system
b) centralized nervous system
c) both a
& b d)
none
3) Planaria
have: 12417126
a) diffused
nervous system
b)
centralized nervous system
c) peripheral
nervous system
d) none of
these
4) The nervous system of Planarian is better
developed as compared , with that of:
12417127
a) man b)
octopus
c) starfish d)
hydra
5) The nervous
system of the Hydra consists of a network of: 12417128
a)
Neurons b) Axons
c)
Dendrons d) Dendrites
6) The
receptor cells of Planaria are sensitive to: 12417129
a) Light
and pressure
b) Light
and touch
c) Light,
pressure, touch and chemicals
d) Touch and chemicals
7) In Planaria, in addition to a
superficial nerve net Just below the epidermis, there is a deeper plexus embedded in the: 12417130
a)
Endoderm b) Mesogloea
c)
Parenchyma d) Coelom
8) A bilobed
mass composed of two ganglia is also known as the brain in: 12417131
a) Hydra b)
Planaria
c)
Earthworm d) Cockroach
6) Human CNS
1) Beneath the cranium, the brain and spinal cord are protected by triple layer of:
12417132
a) meninges b) skin
c) muscles d) fluid
2) Between the layers of meninges, the fluid
that bathes the neurons of brain and spinal cord is: 12417133
a) cerebral fluid b) cerebrospinal fluid
c) spinal fluid d) arachnoid fluid
3) The largest part of the brain is: 12417134
a) cerebellum b) medulla
c) thalamus d) cerebrum
4) The part of skull that protects the brain is:
12417135
a) cranium b) chorion
c) foramen magnum d) choroids
5) Fibres
from the eyes (retina) terminate in the: 12417136
a) visual cortex of brain
b) visual pons of brain
c) visual medulla of brain
d) visual cochlea of brain
6) Forebrain is further divided into: 12417137
a) thalamus b) limbic system
c) cerebrum d) all of the above
7) How many pairs of spinal nerves arise from or
lead to spinal cord? 12417138
a) 31 b)
13
c) 25 d)
12
8) The concentrations of cell bodies of
neurons are: 12417139
a) ganglia b) dendrites
c) axons d)
nodules
9) In human mid
brain is: (Board 2015)
12417140
a) reduced b)
enlarged
c) swollen d)
broken
10) An important role in the formation of long term
memory is played by: 12417141
a) thalamus b) pons
c) hippocampus d) limbic system
11) Human
nervous system, is a type of:
a) diffused nervous system 12417142
b) centralized nervous system
c) both a & b
d) all of the above
12) In humans, there are 12 pairs of nerves, which
arise from the brain, or lead to the brain
these nerves are called: 12417143
a) cerebral nerves b) cranial nerves.
c) spinal nerves d) both a & b
13) Cluster of neurons produce sensation of
pleasure, punishment or sexual arousal when stimulated, in the: 12417144
a) pons b)
thalamus
c) hippocampus d) amygdala
14) Several automatic functions, such as breathing,
heart rate, blood , pressure and swallowing are controlled by: 12417145
a) medulla b) cerebrum
c) thalamus d) pons
15) Medulla oblongata narrows down into an oval
shaped hollow cylinder, the spinal cord, running through the: 12417146
a) neural tube b) vertebral column
c) digestive tract d) vascular channel
16) Autonomic
nervous system is formed of: 12417147
a) sensory neurons b) Motor neurons
c) associative neurons d) both a & b
17) Brain and
spinal cord lead to the: 12417148
a) receptors b) skeleton
c) heart d)
effectors
18) Nicotine
affects post synaptic membrane in: 12417149
a) CNS b)
PNS
c) DNS d)
both a & b
19) Nicotine
may induce: 12417150
a) vomiting b) diarrhoea
c) tetanus d) both a & b
20)
Nociceptors produce the sensation of:
12417151
a) touch b)
pain
c) warmth d)
pressure
21) Peripheral nervous system comprises sensory
neurons and motor neurons, which may form: 12417152
a) ganglia b) nerves
c) both a & b d) neuroglia
22) Thalamus carries sensory information to the: 12417153
a) limbic system b) cerebrum
c) amygdala d) both a & b
23) The brain
can be divided into: 12417154
a) forebrain b) mid brain
c) hind brain d) all a, b, c
24) The cerebellum is important in
coordinating: 12417155
a) heart beat
b) movements of the body
c) respiratory activities
d) voluntary
actions
25) The chief structural and functional units of
the nervous system are: 12417156
a) nerves b)
neuroglia
c) neurons d) both a & c
26) The
limbic system consists of: 12417157
a) hypothalamus
b) amygdala
c) hippocampus
d) all a, b,
c
27) The limbic system is located in an arc between
the: 12417158
a) thalamus & hypothalamus
b) thalamus & cerebrum
c) cerebrum & cerebellum
d) pons & amygdale
28) The outer
region of cerebrum is the:
12417159
a) adrenal cortex b) cerebral cortex
c) visual cortex d) cranial cortex
29) The two cerebral hemispheres communicate with
each other by means of a large band of axons,
called: 12417160
a) corpus callosum b) corpus luteum
c) corpus restiformia d) none
30) The
vertebral column protects the:12417161
a) notochord b) spinal cord
c) brain d)
liver
31) The
mammalian forebrain is differentiated into the thalamus, limbic system and the: 12417162
a) Crebellum b) Hippocampus
c) Cerebellum d) Hypothalamus
32) The limbic
system of forebrain of man consists of hypothalamus, hippocampus and: 12417163
a)
Thalamus b) Cerebrum
c)
Amygdala d) Meninges
33) In human beings, memory is due to:
12417164
a) Amygdala b) Hypothalamus
c) Thalamus d) Hippocampus
34) The human cerebrum is involved in:
12417165
a) Intelligence b)
Reasoning
c) Judgment d)
all of the above
35) The hind-brain of man
consists of the:
a) Pons and the
cerebellum 12417166
b)
Cerebellum and the medulla oblongata
c) Pons,
cerebellum and the medulla oblongata
d) Pons
and the medulla oblongata
36) The
cerebellum, a part of the hind-brain is best developed in: 12417167
a)
Amphibians b) Reptiles
c)
Birds d) Mammals
37) The spinal cord of man is made up of: 12417168
a) Grey matter
b) White matter
c) Both the grey matter and the white matter d) None of the above
38) A nerve is a: 12417169
a)
Concentration of cell bodies of neurons
b)
Collection of naked neurons
c) Bundle of Dendrons
d) bundle
of axons or dendrites, bounded by
connective tissue
39) The
peripheral nervous system consists of the nerves arising from the: 12417170
a) Brain
b) Receptors
c) Brain and the spinal
cord
d) Spinal cord
40) The number of human cerebral nerves is:
12417171
a) Twelve b)Twenty-four
c) Thirty-one d)
Sixty-two
41) A few of the cerebral nerves are: 12417172
a) Sensory b) Motor
c) Mixed d)
Automatic
42) All the spinal nerves are:
12417173
a) Sensory b)
Motor
c) Mixed d)
None of the above
43) The number of human spinal nerves is: 12417174
a) 12 pairs b) 25
pairs
c) 31 pairs d) 32 pairs
44) The maximum speed of nerve impulse as recorded in the human beings is: 12417175
a) 100 metres/second
b) 10 metres/second
c) 120 metres/second
d)130 metres/second
7) Nervous disorders
1) Nervous disease characterized by the involuntary
tremors is the: 12417176
a) Epilepsy
b) Parkinson's disease
c) Raynaud's
disease d) Alzheimer's disease
2) A convulsive disorder of nerves associated with
rapid electric discharges in the gray matter of the brain is called: 12417177
a)
Parkinson's disease
b) Alzheimer's disease
c) Epilepsy
d) Cushing's
disease
3)
Alzheimer's disease is characterized by the decline in the function of: 12417178
a) brain b)
liver
c) kidney d)
stomach
4) Effective
drugs for Parkinson's disease are available such as: 12417179
a) L-dopa
b) dopamine
c) serotonin
d)
epinephrine
5) The most
important test in the study of epilepsy is: 12417180
a)
Electrocardiography
b)
Electroradiography
c)
Electroencephalography
d) PCR
6) One of the
convulsive disorders of nerves is: 12417181
a) Addison's b) Epilepsy
c)
Parkinson's d)
Alzheimer's
7) Excess MSH
is secreted in: 12417182
a) Addison's
disease
b) Parkinson's
disease
c) Graves
disease
d)
Alzheimer's disease
8) A nervous
disorder, characterized by involuntary tremors, diminishing motor power and rigidity: 12417183
a)
Parkinson's disease
b) paralysis
agitans
c) Addison's
disease d) both a & b
9) The onset
of epilepsy is usually before age: 12417184
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
8) Chemical Coordination
i) Pituitary Gland
1) Which
hormone in females stimulates follicle development and secretion of oestrogens from the ovaries: 12417185
a) STH b) FSH
c) ACTH d)
ADH
2) Which
hormone in males stimulates development of the germinal epithelium of the
testis and sperm production:12417186
a) STH b) FSH
c) ACTH d) ADH
3) Gonadotrophic hormones are: 12417187
a)
luteinizing hormone
b) prolactin
c) follicle
stimulating hormone
d) all of the
above
4) In adult man the pituitary gland or hypophysis
cerebri is an ovoid structure about: 12417188
a) 0.2 gm b) 0.5 g
c) 0.7 gm d) 0.9 gm
5) Interstitial cells produce gonadal hormones called: 12417189
a)
Testosterone
b) 17
(β-hydroxytestosterone)
c)
progesterone
d) both a
& b
6) It is believed that oxytocin and vasopressin
or antidiuretic hormone (ADH) are produced
in: 12417190
a) thalamus b) hypothalamus
c)
hippocampus d)
amygdala
7) Milk
ejection from mammary glands is caused by: 12417191
a)
vasopressin b)
Oxytocin
c)
parathormone d)
insulin
8) Prolactin is
continuously produced from the pituitary and is inhibited by prolactin inhibiting factor (PIH) from the: 12417192
a) hypothalamus b) thalamus
c) amygdala d) limbic system
9) Prolactin stimulates: 12417193
a) urination b) milk production
c) excretion d) digestion
10) Vasopressin
or anti-diuretic hormone and oxytocin are: 12417194
a) steroids b)
polypeptides
c) sugars d)
both a & b
11) The glands that lack ducts and whose secretions are called hormones are known as the: 12417195
a) Exocrine glands
b) Endocrine glands
c) Mesocrine
glands
d) Exocrine glands
12) The pituitary gland is also called: 12417196
a) Actinohypophysis
b) Adenohypophysis
c) Hypophysis
cerebri
d) Zygapophysis
13) The over-secretion of the somatotrophin (growth
hormone) during early life leads to: 12417197
a) Dwarfism
b) Cretinism
c)
Gigantism d) Diabetes
14) Dwarfism
in human beings is caused
due to under secretion of: 12417198
a)
Thyrotrophin b) Corticotrophin
c) Somatotrophin d) Prolactin
15) The disease diabetes insipidus is caused due to the under secretion of a pituitary hormone called: 12417199
a) Insulin b)
Glucagons
c) Vasopressin
d) Oxytocin
ii) Thyroid
1) Deficiency of thyroxine in adults, perhaps due
to iodine shortage in diet, produces a swelling
of the neck or: 12417200
a) tumour b)
goitre
c) lump d)
bulge
2) Excess thyroxine produces a condition called: 12417201
a) Addison's
disease
b) Parkinson's
disease
c) Grave's
disease
d) Alzheimer's
disease
3) Which hormone is produced in excess during
early life and leads to gigantism in the
abnormal development of hands, feet, jaw, etc: 12417202
a) gonadotrophin b) ovutrophin
c)
spermatotrophin d) somatotrophin
4) In infants, the deficiency of thyroxine causes
a dwarfed condition called. 12417203
a) gigantism b)
dwarfism
c) cretinism d) myxoedema
5) In man the
parathyroids are found embedded in the posterior part of the lateral lobes of the: 12417204
a) thyroid b)
pancreas
c) pituitary d) testis
6)
Under-activity of parathormone causes a drop in blood Ca2+ which '
in turn leads to muscular: 12417205
a) spasm b) fatigue
c) tetany d) all of the above
7) In
amphibians the thyroid hormones accelerate the rate of: 12417206
a)
Development b) Growth
c) Cell division d)
Metamorphosis
8) The insufficient secretion of thyroxin in
infants causes the defect called as:12417207
a) Cretinism b)
Myxoedema
c) Rickets d)
Diabetes
9) Deficiency
of thyroxin in the adults causes a disease known is: 12417208
a) Cretinism b)
Myxoedema
c) Rickets d) Diabetes
10) The
hormone calcitonin is secreted by a ductless gland known as: 12417209
a) Thyroid b)
Parathyroid
c) Hypothalamus
d) Pancreas
11) The
deficiency of iodine in the diet,
causes swelling of the: 12417210
a)
Face
b)
Leg
c) Neck
d) Hands
12) The under-secretion of parathormone causes a drop in blood calcium level which in turn leads to muscular: 12417211
a) Weakness b) Rigidity
c) Tetany d)
Thickness
13) Parathyroid gland secretes the
hormone:
12417212
a)Thyroxin b)
Iodothyroxine
c) Parathyroxine d)
Parathormone
14) In mammals
thyroid gland consists of two lobes situated below the: 12417213
a) pharynx b) larynx
c) trachea d)
oesophagus
15)
Parathyroids produce a hormone called: 12417214
a) serotonin b) nor-epinephrine
c) calcitonin d) Parathormone
16) Release of
thyrotrophin releasing factor from the hypothalamus is controlled by the levels of: 12417215
a) thyroxine b) thyronine
c)
spmatotrophin d)
gonadotrophin
7) Thyroid
gland produces: 12417216
a) thyroxine
(or tetraiodo-thryonine: T4)
b)
tri-iodothyronine or T3
c) calcitonin
hormone
d) all of the
above
iii) Islets of Langerhans
1) Failure to
produce insulin leads to a condition called: 12417217
a) diabetes
insipidus
b) diabetes
mellitus
c)
glucogenesis
d) myxedema
2) Glucagon
causes an increase in levels of blood: 12417218
a) glucose b) sucrose
c) lactose d)
urea
3) Insulin
inhibits the hydrolysis of glycogen in
the: 12417219
a) liver b) muscles
c) both a
& b d) None of the above
4) The islets
of Langerhans contain large numbers of β cells associated with:
12417220
a) insulin
production
b) glucagon
production
c) steroid
production
d)
epinephrine production
5) α-cells
present in islets' of Langerhans secrete: 12417221
a) glucagon b) insulin
c) gastrin d)
secretin
6) The islets
of Langerhans which secrete the hormones insulin and glucagons comprise a part of 12417222
a)
Liver b) Spleen
c) Kidney
d) Pancreas
7) The amount of sugar in the blood is increased by
the hormone: 12417223
a) Insulin b) Glucagon
c) Adrenaline
d) Cortisone
8) Pancreas is: 12417224
a) Exocrine gland
b) Endocrine gland
c) Both exocrine as well as endocrine glad
d) Ectocrine gland
9) Lack of insulin in the blood leads to a condition called: 12417225
a) Diabetes insipidus
b) Diabetes
mellitus
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Grave's disease
iv) Adrenals
1) A
mineralocorticoid hormone which conserves the level of Na+ ions in
the body by preventing their loss
from the kidney tubules is: 12417226
a) androgens b) testosterone
c)
progesterone d) aldosterone
2)
Development of the secondary male characters is caused by: 12417227
a)
aldosterone b)
androgens
c) oestrogen d) vasopressin
3) Antidiuretic hormone is also called:
12417228
a) oxytocin b) ACTH
c)
vasopressin d)
prolactin
4) Corticostercne is: 12417229
a)
Glucocorticoid
b)
mineralocorticoid
c)
peptidocorticoid
d) both a
& b
5) Cortisol brings about an increase in blood
glucose level mainly by its production from
protein and by antagonizing the action of: 12417230
a) insulin
b) glucagons
c) oestrogen
d)
progesterone
6) Too much cortical hormone is produced in: 12417231
a) Addison's
disease
b) Cushing's
disease
c)
Parkinson's disease
d) Grave's
disease
7) The adrenal cortex secretes: 12417232
a)
Aldosterone
b) Androgenic
hormones
c)
Progesterone
d) Both a
& b
8) The
adrenal medulla produces the hormones: 12417233
a) adrenaline b) nor-adrenaline
c)
epinephrine d)
both a & b
9) Cortisone
is a hormone of the type:
12417234
a) Protein b)
Amino acid
c) Polypeptide
d) Steroid
10) The hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla are
known as: 12417235
a)
Cortisone and adrenaline
b) Adrenaline and nor-adrenaline
c) Cortisone
and nor-adrenaline
d) Insulin and glucagons
11) Adrenaline and nor adrenaline promote the release
of glucose from the liver:
12417236
a) Sucrose
b) Cellulose
c)
Glycogen d) Pepsinogen
12) Aldosterone conserves the level of sodium ions in
the body by preventing their loss from the: 12417237
a) Liver
b) Kidney
tubules
c) Pancreas d) Lungs
13) Cortisol
brings about an increase in blood glucose level mainly by its production from: 12417238
a) Fats b) Protein
c) Glycogen
d) Oil
14) The adrenal cortex is destroyed in:
12417239
a) Parkinson's disease
b) Alzheimer's disease
c) Addison’s
disease
d) Cushing's disease
v) Guts
1) The
hormone produced by mucosa of the pyloric region of the stomach is: 12417240
a) secretin b)
gastrin
c) serotonin d) epinephrine
2) Gastrin
stimulates the secretion of: 12417241
a) hepatic
juice b) intestinal juice
c) gastric
juice d)
pancreatic juice
3) The
hormone produced from the duodenum when acid food touches its lining is: 12417242
a) gastrin b)
serotonin
c) secretin d)
calcitonin
4) Secretin
is a hormone secreted by the:
a) Stomach of man 12417243
b) Duodenum of man
c) Jejunum
of man
d) Colon
of man
vi) Gonads
1) LH works
with FSH to stimulate oestrogen secretion and rupture of mature follicles to release: 12417244
a) egg b)
ovum
c) both a
& b d) sperms
2) Oestrogens
are secreted by ripening:
12417245
a) ovaries b) corpus luteum
c) follicles d)
testes
3) Oestrogens
bring about the development of the secondary sexual characters in the: 12417246
a) female b)
male
c) both a
& b d) none
4) Which one is not steroid: 12417247
a) Oestrogens
b) testosterone
c) cortisone d)
glucagon
5) The
ruptured follicle in response to LH from the pituitary, produces: 12417248
a) oestrogen b) testosterone
c) adrenaline d) progesterone
6) The testes
consist of many coiled: 12417249
a)
seminiferous tubules
b) malpighian
tubules
c) renal
tubules d) all of the above
7) Corpus
luteum secretes the hormone:
12417250
a)
Testosterone b) Parathormone
c) Oxytocin d) Progesterone
8) The, oestrogens aid in healing and repair of
uterine wall after 12417251
a) Childbirth b)
Surgical operation
c)
Menstruation d) Infection
9) Behaviour
1) The
scientists who study animal behavior,
are known as; 12417252
a)
Psychologists b)
Ethnologists
c) Ethologists d)
Biologists
2) Learning by trial and error was demonstrated and
studied by: 12417253
a) Thorpe
b) Pavlov and Carpenter
c) Thorndike and Skinner
d) Alien and Thorpe
3) A beautiful
example of insight learning came from the work of Kohler on:12417254
a)
Monkeys b) Baboons
c) Chimpanzees
d) Racoons
4) The highest
form of learning is: 12417255
a) Conditioned reflex
b) Imprinting
c) Insight
learning
d) Latent learning
5) Pavlov
performed experiments with dogs in order to investigate conditioned reflex type
of: 12417256
a) Hereditary behaviour
b) Inborn behaviour
c) Instinctive behaviour
d) Learning behaviour
6) The
simplest form of learning is: 12417257
a) Conditioned reflex b) Latent learning
c) Habituation d) Imprinting
7) A directed
movement either towards (positive taxis) or away from (negative taxis) a stimulus is: 12417258
a) kineses b)
turgor
c) taxis d)
nutation
8) Behaviour is divided into: 12417259
a) innate
behavior
b) learned
behaviour
c) none
d) both a
& b
9) Who was
the first to propose an objective definition of instincts in terms of animal behaviour: 12417260
a) Darwin b)
Lamarck
c) Wallace d) Lyell
10) The
simplest form of learning is: 12417261
a)
Habituation b)
latent learning
c) Imprinting d) insight learning
11) Imprinting
is best known in birds such 12417262
a) Geese b)
ducks
c) Chickens d) all a, b, c
12) Innate
behaviour is a collection of responses that are predetermined by the:
12417263
a) heritage b) birthright
c) inheritance d) legacy
13) A behaviour
in which an organism changes the speed of random movements which help them to
survive in the environment is: 12417264
a) taxis b) turgor
c) Kineses d)
tropism
14) Learning
behaviour depends on the:
12417265
a) environmental
influence b) heredity
c) birthright d) ecology
15) Learning
depends on the: 12417266
a) experiments b) experiences
c) know-how d) understanding
16) Pavlov
conditioned the dogs to secrete saliva on ringing of the: 12417267
a) bell b)
drum
c) whistle d)
horn
17) Who defined
latent learning as the association of indifferent stimuli or situations without patent (clear or observable) reward: 12417268
a) Thorpe b)
Thorndike
c) Lorenz d)
Allen
18) Thorpe
defined learning as that process which manifests itself by adaptive changes in individual behaviour as a result of: 12417269
a) experiment b) experience
c) happenings d) both a & b
19) Operant
conditioning or conditioned reflex type II has been demonstrated and studied by: 12417270
a) Thorndike
& B.F.Skinner
b) Thorpe & Lorenz
c) Carpenter & Allen
d) Lorenz & Carpenter
20) Kohler
performed many experiments on chimpanzee, and showed that they have higher form of learning called: 12417271
a) habituation b) latent learning
c) imprinting d) insight learning
Short questions
COORDINATION
IN PLANTS
1.
Define
coordination? 12417272
2.
Why
Chlorosis arises? (Board- 2006) 12417273
3.
In
higher animals how coordination is brought about? 12417274
4.
How
plants respond to the stimuli?
12417275
5.
Which
type of plants are said to etiolated? 12417276
6.
What
is chlorosis? (Board- 2006) 12417277
7.
What
are Calluses? (Board- 2009) 12417278
8.
What
are galls? (Board-
2009) 12417279
9.
Differentiate
between biorhythms or diurnal rhythms. (Board 2014) 12417280
10.
What
is Circannual?
(Board 2016) 12417281
11.
What
are plant hormones? 12417282
12.
Name
different plant hormones?
12417283
13.
Give
two functions of gibberellins?
12417284
14.
Give
two commerical applications of gibberellins. (Board 2014) 12417285
15.
What
is use of GA3? 12417286
16.
Give
two functions of Cytokinins? 12417287
17.
What
is commercial application of cytokinin? (Board 2016)
12417288
18.
Give
two functions of Abscisic acid? 12417289
19.
What
is commercial application of abscisic acid? 12417290
20.
What
is commercial application of ethene? 12417291
21.
Write
the functions of photoreceptors and nociceptors. (Board 2014) 12417292
COORDINATION IN ANIMALS
22.
What
are photoreceptors? (Board 2014)12417293
23.
What
is Neuroglia? 12417294
24.
What
are cranial nerves? 12417295
25.
What
is the effect of nicotine on coordination? 12417296
26.
How
neuron fibres and cell bodies can be excited? 12417297
27.
What
is nervous coordination? 12417298
28.
What
are elements of nervous system? 12417299
29.
What
are Receptors? 12417300
30.
What
are chemoreceptors? 12417301
31.
What
are Mechanoreceptors? 12417302
32.
What
are thermo-receptors? (Board 2014) 12417303
33.
What
are nociceptors?
(Board 2014) 12417304
34.
What
is modality of sensation? 12417305
35.
What
are Meissner's corpuscles?
12417306
36.
What
are Pacinian corpuscles? 12417307
37.
What
is Dendron or are dendrites? (Board 2009, 10) 12417308
38.
How
axon differ from dendron? OR Compare axon with dendrites. 12417309
(Board 2014)
39.
What
are Axons? (Board 2009, 10) 12417310
40.
What
are Nissl's granules? (Board 2013)
12417311
41.
What
is Cell body or soma? 12417312
42.
Name
different types of neurons.
12417313
43.
What
are Sensory Neurons? 12417314
44.
What
are Motor neurons? 12417315
45.
What
are Associative Neurons? 12417316
46.
What
are Effectors? (Board
2007,14, 16)
12417317
47.
What
is reflex arc? (Board
2007,14)
12417318
48.
Define
nerve impulse. (Board 2007)
12417319
49.
Define
electrical potential and membrane potential? 12417320
50.
What
is resting membrane potential? 12417321
51.
What
is active membrane potential? 12417322
52.
What
is saltatory impulse? 12417323
53.
What
is synapse? 12417324
54.
How
does nerve impulse pass from one neuron to other through the synapse?
12417325
55.
What
are neurotransmitters? Give their various types. 12417326
56.
What
is Acetylcholine? 12417327
57.
What
are different designs of nervous system in the animal kingdom. 12417328
58.
What
are the main parts of nervous system of man? 12417329
59.
Name
the two parts of central nervous system. 12417330
60.
What
is Cranium? 12417331
61.
What
are Meninges? 12417332
62.
What
is Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? 12417333
63.
Name
different parts of brain. 12417334
64.
Name
various parts of forebrain.
12417335
65.
What
is the function of Thalamus?
12417336
66.
How
does limbic system work? 12417337
67.
What
are various parts of limbic system? 12417338
68.
What
is role of Hypothalamus?
(Board
2016) 12417339
69.
What
is the role of Amygdala? 12417340
70.
What
is the function of Hippocampus? 12417341
71.
What
are cerebral hemispheres?
12417342
72.
What
is corpus callosum? 12417343
73.
What
is cerebral cortex? 12417344
74.
What
is reticular formation? 12417345
75.
Name
different parts of Hindbrain? 12417346
76.
What
is function of Medulla? 12417347
77.
What
is the role of Pons? 12417348
78.
What
is the role of cerebellum? 12417349
79.
What
is spinal cord? 12417350
80.
What
is grey matter? 12417351
81.
What
is white matter? 12417352
82.
What is
the composition of peripheral nervous system (PNS)? 12417353
83.
What
are Ganglia? 12417354
84.
What
are Nerves? 12417355
85.
What
is chemical coordination?
12417356
86.
What
are spinal nerves? 12417357
87.
What
is Somatic nervous system?
12417358
88.
What
is Autonomic nervous system? 12417359
89.
Name
different parts of autonomic nervous system. 12417360
90.
What
is the role of Sympathetic nervous system? 12417361
91.
What
is Parasympathetic nervous system? 12417362
92.
Draw
and label sensory neutron 12417363
Ans:
NERVOUS DISORDERS
93.
Name
a few nervous disorders. 12417364
94.
What
is Parkinson's disease? 12417365
95.
What
is Epilepsy? (Board 2009) 12417366
96.
What
is Alzheimer's disease? 12417367
CHEMICAL COORDINATION
97.
What
are hormones? 12417368
98.
Give
two characteristics of Hormones. 12417369
99.
What
is Hypothalamus? 12417370
100.
What
is Pituitary Gland? 12417371
101.
Why pituitary
gland is called Master gland? 12417372
102.
Name
different hormones released by anterior lobe of pituitary gland. 12417373
103.
Name
the hormones released by median lobe of pituitary gland. 12417374
104.
Name
the hormones released by posterior lobe of pituitary gland. 12417375
105.
Give
one function of thyroxine and tri-iodothyronine? 12417376
106.
What
is the effect of over-secretion of thyroxine? 12417377
107.
What
is cretinism? 12417378
108.
What
is myxoedema? 12417379
109.
What
is calcitonin? 12417380
110.
What
is action of glucagon? 12417381
111.
Name
the hormones released by adrenal gland. 12417382
112.
What
is the function of aldosterone? 12417383
113.
What
is the function of Cortisol? 12417384
114.
What
is the function of Corticosterone? 12417385
115.
What
is Cushing's disease? 12417386
116.
What
are Androgens? 12417387
117.
What
is gastrin? (Board 2010)
12417388
118.
What
is Secretin? (Board 2010)
12417389
119.
Where
oestrogens and progesterone are produced? 12417390
120.
What
are seminiferous tubules and interstitial cells? 12417391
121.
Define
feedback mechanism.
12417392
BEHAVIOUR
122.
What
is behaviour? 12417393
123.
What
ethologists think about animal's response? 12417394
124.
Define
learning behaviour? 12417395
125.
Who
has demonstrated and studied operant conditioning or conditioned reflex type
II? 12417396
126.
What
is Innate Behaviour?
(Board 2007)
12417397
127.
What
are Kineses? 12417398
128.
What
are Taxes? 12417399
129.
What
are instincts? 12417400
130.
Define
Learning. 12417401
131.
What
is innate releasing mechanism (IRM)? 12417402
132.
What
is Imprinting? (Board 2008, 10)
12417403
133.
Define
Habituation. 12417404
134.
Define
Conditioning or conditioned reflex type I. 12417405
135.
Define
Operant conditioning or conditioned reflex type II. 12417406
136.
What
is Latent learning? 12417407
137.
What
is insight learning?
(Board 2006) 12417408
138.
Name
only types of innate behavior.
(Board 2016) 12417409
UNIT 18
REPRODUCTION
Multiple Choice Questions
Exercise
i) Reproduction is very important to the
survival of: 12418021
a) Species b)
Individual
c) Population d) Both a and c
ii) In plants
photoperiod and temperature affect 12418022
a) Flowering
b) Buds and
seed dormancy
c) Fruit and
seed production
d) All a ,b ,
c
iii)
Developing seeds are rich source of:
12418023
a) Auxins b)
Cytokinins
c)
Gibberellins d) all a, b , c
iv) Common
methods of asexual reproduction are: 12418024
a) Tissue
culturing
b) Identical
twins
c) Cloning
d) All a, b,
c
v)
Photoperiod affects flowering when shoot meristem starts producing 12418025
a) Floral
buds b) Leaves
c) Lateral
buds d) Both b and
c
2) Start Reproduction in
plants
1) The
mechanism that produces new generations and maintains a species is:
12418026
a)
fertilization b)
conception
c)
reproduction d) ovulation
2) The union
of meiotically produced specialized sex cells from each parents produce: 12418027
a) Fertilized
egg b) unfertilized
egg
c) zygote d)
both a & c
3) If the two
generations of plant are vegetatively dissimilar it is called:
12418028
a)
homomorphic b)
isomorphic
c) heteromorphic
d) eumorphic
4) If the two
generations are vegetatively similar such alternation of generation is referred
to as: 12418029
a)
homomorphic
b) isomorphic
c)
heteromorphic
d) eumorphic
5) In plants,
if there is alternation of generation between a diploid sporophyte and a
haploid gametophyte meiosis occurs during: 12418030
a) gamete
formation
b) spore
formation
c) both a
& b
d) none of
the above
6) Plants have diplohaplontic life cycle in:
a) Asexual reproduction 12418031
b) Sexual
reproduction
c) Both a
& b
d) None of
these
7) Organisms produced from a single cell by
sub-culturing (cloning) are called: 12418032
a) Identical
twins b) Clones
c) Similar d)
None of these
3) Parthenocarpy---Seed
dormancy---Fruit set and Ripening
1)
Developing seeds are a rich source of:
12418033
a) auxins b)
gibberellins
c) cytokinins d) All of the above
2) Fruit ripening is often accompanied by a
burst of respiratory activity called the:
12418034
a) climax b)
climactric
c) trimetric d) dimetric
3) In some cases fruit development proceeds
without fertilization and thus no seed formation. Such development is called:
1241835
a)
Parthenogenesis b) Partheno fruit
c)
Parthenocarpy d)
Partheno seed
4) Germinating
pollen grain is rich source of:: (Board 2015) 12418036
a) Gibberellins
b) Auxin
c) Cytokinin
d) Ethene
5) Fruit ripening is often accompanied by a
burst of respiratory activity called the:
a) Fertilization 12418037
b)
Photoperiod
c)
Climacteric
d)
Reproduction
6) Parthenocarpy is sometimes artificially induced
in tomatoes and pepers etc by adding: (Board
2016) 12418037-a
a) Abscisic acid
b)
Cytokinins
c) Auxins
d) Gibbere
lins
4) Photoperiodism
Vernalisation
1) Cocklebur (Xanthium),
chrysanthemum, soya bean, tobacco strawberry are examples of: 12418038
a) Short day
plants
b) Long day
plants
c) Day neutral
plants
d) Short night
plants
2) Cucumber,
tomato, garden pea, maize, cotton are examples of: 12418039
a) short day
plants
b) long day
plants
c) day-neutral
plants
d) short night
plants
3) Effect of photoperiodism was first studied in
1920 by: (Board 2016) 12418040
a) Darwin &
Francis
b) Garner &
Allard
c) Linnaeus
& Lamarck
d) Watson &
Crick
4) Henbane (Hyoscyamus
niger), snapdragon, cabbage, spring wheat, spring barley are examples of: 12418041
a) short day
plants
b) long day
plants
c) day-neutral
plants
d) long night
plants
5) In nature P 730 to P 660 conversion occurs in
the: 12418042
a) day b)
dark
c) evening d)
dawn
6) In nature,
the P660 to P730 conversion takes place in: 12418043
a) day light b) dark
c) evening d)
dawn
7) Long-day plants will flower in short days if
the interrupted period is: 12418044
a) long night
b) short night
c) long day d) short day
8) P 660 absorbs red light at a wavelength of
660 nm and is converted to active: 12418045
a) P 430 b)
P 530
c) P 630 d)
P 730
9) P730 absorbs far red light at 730 nm and is
converted to: 12418046
a) P 480 b)
P 530
c) P 660 d)
P 760
10)
Phytochromes exist in two forms: 12418047
a) P 660 and
P 530
b) P 630 and
P 730
c) P 660 and
P 730
d) P 460 and
P 730
11) Short-day
plants are really: 12418048
a)
short-night plants
b) long-night
plants
c) mid-night
plants
d) day
neutral plants
12) The
biological clock once stimulated causes production of florigen hormone in
leaves, which travel through phloem to the floral buds, initiating: 12418049
a) fruiting b)
leaf formation
c) leaf
shedding d)
flowering
13) The
P730-P660 interconversion might be the plant time –regulator for: 12418050
a) flowering b) leafing
c) budding d) shooting
14) The
response to light intensity and quality leads to the discovery of blue light
sensitive protein pigments, 12418051
a)
phytoproteins b)
phytochromes
c)
photochromes d)
photoproteins
15) The
variations in day length are called photoperiod and the phenomenon is called: 12418052
a)
photoperiodism
b)
photosynthesis
c)
photo-variations
d)
photo-fluctuation
16) Which
light was effective in preventing flowering in cocklebur? 12418053
a) red light b) blue light
c) yellow
light d) far red light
17) The
temperature more effective for vernalisation:
(Board 2015) 12418054
a)
4oC b)
8oC
c) 12oC
d) 16oC
18) The
duration of low temperature (Chilling) treatment varies from: 12418055
a) 4 days to 2 months
b) 4 days to
3 months
c) 2 days to
3 months
d) 5 days to
5 months
19) Biennial and perennial plants are stimulated
to flower by exposure to low temperature. This is called: 12418056
a) photoperiodism b) fIorigenation
c) chilling d) vernalisation
5) Reproduction in Animals
1) The union
of meiotically produced specialized sex cells from each parents produce: 12418057
a) fertilized egg
b)
unfertilized egg
c) zygote
d) both a
& c
2) Asexual reproduction requires only a single
parental organism which gives rise to offspring by: 12418058
a) mitotic cell division
b) meiotic cell division
c) both a & b
d) all of the above
3) A type of
asexual reproduction in which parent organism simply divides into two daughter
organisms is: 12418059
a) budding
b) multiple
fission
c) binary
fission
d) nuclear
fission
4) External
fertilization occurs in an environment which is: 12418060
a) aquatic b) terrestrial
c) both a
& b d)
none
5) Fertilization is the process which leads to
union of: 12418061
a) individuals b) eggs
c) sperms d)
gametes
6) In some cases
e.g., in aphids, parthenogenesis may be: 12418062
a) haploid b) diploid
c) triploid d) tetraploid
7) Mammals are: 12418063
a) oviparous b) ovoviviparous
c) both a &
b d)
viviparous
8) Reptiles and birds are: 12418064
a) oviparous b) viviparous
c) ovoviviparous
d) euviviparous
9) In honey bee
males sperm are produced by: (Board 2015) 12418065
a) Meosis b)
Mitosis
c) Apomixis d) Parthenocarpy
10) Some mammals
like Duckbill platypus are: 12418066
a) oviparous b) viviparous
c) ovaviviparous
d) euviviparous
11) Some
platyhelminthes, like Planaria, reproduce asexually through the division of
their bodies in 12418067
a) two halves b) three segment
c) four segments d) five parts
12) The
animals in which development of embryo is accomplished inside the female body
and give birth to young one are called: 12418068
a) ovoviviparous b) viviparous
c) oviparous d)
euviviparous
13) The animals which lay shelled eggs to protect
the developing embryo from harsh terrestrial condition are 12418069
a)
Ovoviviparous b)
viviparous
c) oviparous d) euviviparous
14) The process which leads to union of gametes is: 12418070
a) Germination b)
Pollination
c) Reproduction d)
Fertilization
15) Whcih of the
following is the type of asexual reproduction?
(Board 2016)
12418070-a
a) fertilization b)
vernalization
c) Apomixis d)
Photoperiodism
6) Reproduction in Man
1) A structure established between the uterine
and foetal tissues for the exchange of oxygen, carbon dioxide, waste, nutrients
and other materials is: 12418071
a) bridge b)
placenta
c) canal d)
channel
2) During delivery in humans, the average loss of
blood is about: (Board
2014) 12418072
a) 150 cm3
b)
250 cm3
c) 350 cm3
d) 450 cm3
3) Between
the seminiferous tubules are interstitial cells which secrete: 12418073
a) oestrogen b) testosterone
c)
progesterone d) oxytocin
4) Corpus luteum starts secreting a hormone
called: 12418074
a) oestrogen b) testosterone
c)
progesterone d) oxytocin
5) Decrease of FSH and increase of oestrogen,
causes the pituitary gland to secrete: 12418075
a)
luteotropic hormone
b)
luteinizing hormone
c)
vasopressin
d) oxytocin
6) Luteinizing hormone induces: 12418076
a) flowering b) ovulation
c)
vernalisation d) menopause
7) Each
testis consists of a highly complex duct system called: 12418077
a)
seminiferous tubules
b)
interstitial tubules
c) malpighian
tubules
d) renal
tubules
8) External
genitalia of human male consist of a pair of testes which lie outside the body,
in the sac like: 12418078
a) pouch b)
marsupium
c) scrotum d)
bag
9) Fluid
secreted by sertoli cells provides liquid medium, protection and nourishment
to: (Board 2015) 12418079
a) Oocyte b)
Sperms
c) Polar body d) Spermatids
10) From
beginning of the 3rd month of pregnancy the human embryo is referred to as the: 12418080
a) foetus b)
kid
c) kitten d)
cub
11) Germ
cells in the ovary produce many: 12418081
a)
spermatogonia b)
zoospores
c) zygospores
d) oogonia
12) If
fertilization does not occur the corpus luteum starts: 12418082
a)
progesterone
b) menstrual
cycle
c)
degenerating
d)
regenerating
13) In human
females the periodic reproductive cycle is completed in approximately: 12418083
a) 20 days b) 22 days
c) 25 days d)
28 days
14) In human
only one ovum is usually discharged from the ovary at one time. This phenomenon
is 12418084
a) ovulation b) menstruation
c) oestrous d) apomixis
15) In
seminiferous tubules repeated division of the cells of the germinal epithelium
produce: 12418085
a) oogonia b) zoogonia
c) ovogonia d) spermatogonia
16)
Male reproductive organ is used to transfer the sperms into the female:
a)
digestive tract 12418086
b)
reproductive tract
c)
respiratory tract
d)
excretory tract
17)
Human male reproductive system consists of: 12418087
a) external genetilia
b) male reproductive organ
c)
both a & b
d)
all of the above
18)
Menstruation usually lasts for: 12418088
a) 3
-7 days b) 2
-5 days
c) 1
-3 days d) 5
-7 days
19)
Most of the major organs of foetus are formed by the: 12418089
a)
10th week of pregnancy
b)
14th week of pregnancy
c)
12th week of pregnancy
d)
18th week of pregnancy
20) Once the placenta is established it starts
secreting the progesterone hormone which maintains the: 12418090
a)
development
b)
pregnancy
c)
lactation
d)
ovulation
21)
Oogonia divide mitotically to form:
12418091
a)
primary oocytes
b)
secondary oocytes
c)
primary spermatozoids
d)
secondary spermatozoids
22)
Testosterone controls the development of male secondary sexual characteristics
during: 12418091
a)
childhood b)
puberty
c)
development d) adult age
23)
The ACTH released from foetal pituitary stimulates the foetal adrenal gland to
release: 12418092
a) steroids b) vasopressin
c)
corticosteroids d)
oxytocin
24)
The discharge of blood and cell debris is known as: 12418093
a)
menstruation b) bleeding
c)
menupause d)
abortion
25) The end or complete stop of the menstrual
cycle is called: 12418094
a) femopause b) genopasue
c) menopause d) repopause
26) The
events of the menstrual cycle involves the ovaries and the uterus and these are
regulated by pituitary: 12418095
a)
gonadosteroids
b)
gonadoproteins
c)
gonadomorphs
d)
gonadotrophins
27) The
follicle cells, after release of the egg, are modified to form a special
structure called: 12418096
a) corpus
luteum b) fallopian tube
c) corpus
callosum d) corpus atresia
28) The
follicles are broken down by a degenerative process known as: 12418097
a) follicle
broker b) follicle
atresia
c) follicle
luteum d) follicle
asteria
29) The oviduct is generally called: 12418098
a) fallopian
tube b) uterine tube
c) both a
& b d)
all of the above
30) The
pituitary gland, on the onset of puberty, releases follicle stimulating hormone
(FSH) which stimulates the development of several: 12418099
a) primary
oocytes
b) primary
follicles
c) primary
spermatozoids
d) primary
ova
31) The
primary oocyte divides meiotically into the: 12418100
a) haploid
secondary oocyte
b) first
polar body
c) both a
& b
d) all of the
above
32) During
menstrual cycle, the reduction of progesterone level stimulates the pituitary
gland to produce: 12418101
a) insulin b)
glucagons
c)
vasopressin d)
oxytocin
33) The
release of ovum from the follicle is called: 12418102
a) ovulation b) menstruation
c) follicle
atresia d) menopause
34) The
spermatids differentiate into mature:
12418103
a) eggs b) zooids
c) sperms d)
seeds
35) The total
gestation period (pregnancy) of humans is usually about: 12418104
a) 100 days b) 135 days
c) 180 days d) 280 days
36) Uterus
opens into the vagina through:
a) oviduct 12418105
b) cervix
c) ovary
d) pubis
37) After
birth the uterus contracts and separates the placenta from the wall of the
uterus within: 12418106
a) 10-35
minutes b)10-25
minutes
c) 10-45
minutes d)15-45
minutes
38)
Non-motile female gametes or eggs are called: 12418107
a) Sperm b)
Oogonia
c)
Spermatozoid d) Ova
39) In human
how many ova are usually discharged from the ovary at one time:
12418108
a) One b)
Two
c) Six d)
Three
40) The
yellowish glandular structure, corpus luteum, starts secreting a hormone
called:
12418109
a) Sterone b)
Progesterone
c) Oestrogen d) Testerone
41) The ACTH
released from foetal pituitary stimulates the foetal adrenal glands to release: 12418110
a)
Corticosteroids b)
Gastrin
c) Pepsin d)
Mucous
42) Towards
the end of pregnancy, the reduction in progasterone level, stimulates pituitary
gland to produce:
(Board 2016) 12418110-a
a) Oxytocin b) Oestrogen
c) Androgen d)
Prolactin
7) Test Tube Babies and STD
1) Genital
Herpes is caused by a herpes simplex type 2 virus, most frequently transmitted
by sexual contact causing infection of the:
12418111
a) ovaries b) brain
c) genitalia d) liver
2) Gonorrhoa
is caused by a gram positive bacteria: 12418112
a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b) E. coli
c) Salmonella
typhi
d) Escherichia
gonorrhoeae
3) Syphilis
is caused by a spirochete: 12418113
a) Staphylococcus
aureus
b) Rhizobium
c) E. coli
d) Treponema
pallidum
4) The
disease which is caused by herpes type 2 viruses is: 12418114
a) AIDS
b) Gonorrhoea
c) Syphilis
d) Genital
herpes.
Short questions
Start
Fruit set and ripening
Q.1:What is reproduction? 12418115
Q.2: How many types of reproduction are
there? 12418116
Q.3:What is asexual reproduction? 12418117
Q.4: What are different methods of asexual
reproduction? 12418118
Q.5: What is Sexual reproduction? 12418119
Q.6: Which method of reproduction is
primitive, asexual or sexual? 12418120
Q.7:What is Diplohaplontic life cycle?
12418121
Q.8: Differentiate between isomorphic and
heteromorphic? 12418122
Q.9: What is seed dormancy?
(Board 2015) 12418123
Q.10: What is fruit set? 12418124
Q.11: Define climacteric. 12418125
Q.12: What is
parthenocarpy?
(Board
2006, 07, 10) 12418126
Q.13: What is the function of germinating
pollen grain? 12418127
Q.14 : What is diploid parthenogenesis? 12418128
Photoperiodism and Vernalisation
Q.1: Define photoperiodism. 12418129
Q.2 : Why Garner and Allard are famous for? 12418130
Q.3:What is Photomorphogenesis? 12418131
Q.4: What are phytochromes? 12418132
Q.5: Differntiate between P
660 and P730. (Board
2007) 12418133
Q.6: What is florigen? 12418134
Q.7: Define vernalisation. (Board
2006)
12418135
Q.8: What is the duration of low
temperature for vernalisation? 12418136
Q.9: What hormone induces vernalisation? 12418137
Q.10: What is the importance of
Photoperiodism and vernalisation? 12418138
Q. 11: What is importance of vernalisation
in agriculture? 12418139
Reproduction in Animals
Q.1: Define reproduction. 12418140
Q.2: What common methods of asexual
reproduction in animals? 12418141
Q.3: Define Parthenogenesis. 12418142
.Q.4: What is haploid parthenogenesis? (Board 2015.16) 12418143
Q.5:
What is Tissue Culturing technique? 12418144
Q.6: What is Cloning? (Board 2006, 10)12418145
Q.7: Give some advantages of cloning.
(Board 2015) 12418146
Q.8: Give some disadvantages of cloning. 12418147
Q.9:
What are identical twins? OR
12418148
How identical twins are produced?
(Board 2010, 15) 12418149
Q.10: Give examples of some animals in
which external fertilization occurs. 12418150
Q.11: What are Oviparous? (Board
2007-08) 12418151
Q.12: What are viviparous? (Board 2007-08) 12418152
Q.13: How identical and fraternal twins are
produced? (Board 2014) 12418153
Q.14: What are fraternal twins or triplets?
(Board 2010) 12418154
Q. 15: What do you mean by Hermaphrodite? 12418155
Q. 16: What is fertilization? 12418156
Q.17:
What is ovoviviparous condition?
12418157
Q.18: Define apomixis. (Board 2016) 12418157
Reproduction in Man
Q.1: What is external genitalia in human
male? 12418158
Q.2:
What are seminiferous tubules?
12418159
Q.3: What are spermatocytes and spermatids? 12418160
Q.4: What are sertoli cells? 12418161
Q.5: What are epididymis and vas deferens? 12418162
Q.6:
What is Testosterone? 12418163
Q.
7: What are various parts of the female reproductive system? 12418164
Q.8: What are oogonia? 12418165
Q.9: What is ovulation? 12418166
Q.10: What
is Placenta? (Board 2008) 12418167
Q. 11:
What are pituitary gonadotrophins? 12418168
Q.12:
What is FSH? 12418169
Q.13: What is follicle atresia? 12418170
Q.14: What is the role of oestrogen in
menstrual cycle? 12418171
Q.15:
What is the role of luteinizing hormone (LH)? 12418172
Q.16: What is corpus luteum? (Board 2007) 12418173
Q.17: What is the role of progesterone? 12418174
Q.18:
What is menstruation? 12418175
Q 19:
What is menopause? 12418176
Q.20:
What is gestation period? (Board 2010) 12418177
Q.21:
Name the hormones secreted by placenta. 12418178
Q.22: What is foetus? 12418179
Q.23: What is the role of corticosteroids
in birth? 12418180
Q.24: What is the role of oxytocin in
labour? 12418181
Q.25:
What is after birth?
(Board 2016) 12418182
Q.26:
What is the average loss of blood during delivery? 12418183
Q.
27: What is menstrual cycle? 12418184
Q.28: Explain oestrous cycle.
(Board 14,16) 12418185
Q.29: Differentiate between oogenesis and
spermatogenesis. (Board 14,16) 12418185-a
Test
Tube Babies ______ STD (Board
2010)
Q.1: What are test tube babies? 12418186
Q.2:
What is Gonorrhoa?
(Board 2014) 12418187
Q.3: What is Syphilis? 12418188
Q.4: What is Genital Herpes? 12418189
Unit |
GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT |
|
19 |
Multiple
Choice Questions
Exercise
1) Growth is influenced by: 12419018
a) Hormones
b) Water
c)
Vitamins
d) All a, b, c
2) Neurula is the stage in which embryo has:
a)
Blastocoel 12419019
b) Neural tube
c)
The germ layers
d) Archenteron
3) The mesodermal cells do not invaginate but migrate medially and
caudally from both sides and create
midline thickening called: 12419020
a)
Henson’s node b) Primitive
streak
c)
Epiblast d)
Hypoblast
4) The negative physiological
changes in our body are called 12419021
a)
Degeneration b)
Abnormalities
c)
Aging d)
Regeneration
1) Growth and Development Meristems,
conditions for growth
1) A plant has a growth pattern called:
a) Open growth 12419022
b) Closed growth
c) Round growth
d) Wide growth
2) During cell division the number of cells
increases by: 12419023
a) Amitosis b) Mitosis
c) Meiosis d)
None
3) During elongation the cell
volume increases up to 150 fold due to uptake of:
12419024
a) Light b) Oxygen
c) Water d) Carbon dioxide
4) For maximum growth, the
optimum temperature is 25-30°C and it is least at:
12419025
a)
1-3°C b)
5-10oC
d) 4-8oC d)
6-12°C
5) Generally, light influences growth by:
12419026
a)
Intensity b)
Quality
c) Duration d) All a, b, c
6) Growth may be: 12419027
a) Primary b)
Secondary
c) Tertiary d)
Both a & b
7) The permanent and irreversible increase in
size that occurs as an organism matures is: 12419028
a) Development
b) Growth
c) Progression
d) Expansion
8) Growth of multicellular plant
is divided into: 12419029
a) Cell division & Elongation
b) Maturation &
Differentiation
c) Both a & b
d) Elongation & maturation
9) In higher plants growth is limited to certain
regions known as: 12419030
a) Growing sites
b) Growing places
c) Growing points
d) Growing locations
10) Lateral Meristems are present in: 12419031
a) Monocots b) dicots
c) Gymnosperms d) Both b& c
11) Meristems are young tissues
or group of cells that retain the potential to: 12419032
a) Penetrate b) Regenerate
c) Divide d) Survive
12) Plant hormones also influence
growth e.g., Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA) causes:
a) Maturation of cells 12419033
b) Elongation of cells
c) Differentiation of cells
d) All of the above
13) Primary tissue is added by the: 12419034
a) Lateral meristem
b) Underground meristem
c) Apical meristem
d) Vertical meristem
14) Secondary tissue is added by
the intercalary or vascular cambium leading to increase in: 12419035
a) Length b) Thickness
c) Both a & b
d) All of the above
15) The light that favours
elongation of cells is: 12419036
a) Blue b) Red
c) Yellow d) Green
16) The light that enhances cell
division but retards cell enlargement is:
(Board 2014) 12419037
a) Blue b) Red
c) Yellow d) Green
17) Vascular and cork cambium are
the examples of: 12419038
a) Intercalary meristems
b) Apical meristems
c) Lateral meristems
d) Vertical meristems
18) Which one of these supply
energy to growing plants: 12419039
a) Salts b) Nutrients
c) Balance diet d) All of these
19) The apical meristems are found at the tips of: 12419040
a) Roots b) Shoot
c) Leaves d) Both a & b
20) The growing points are called: 12419041
a) Meristems b) Meriroots
c) Merishoots d) None of above
21) The meristematic cells are located at the:
12419042
a) Stem b) Root
c) Leave d) Both a & b
22) Temperature influences the rate of growth
with a range from: 12419043
a)
0 -53°C b)
35° -53°C
c) 0 -35°C d)
36° -53°C
23) Of all environmental factors
controlling growth and development of plants, the most important ones are: 12419044
a)
Temperature b) Light
c) Wind d) Both a & b
2) Growth Correlation
1) In addition to auxin, which hormone also play
important role in apical dominance:
a) abscisic acid 12419045
b) gibberellins
c) 2,4-D
d) cytokinins
2) One of the most important correlative effect
in plants is: 12419046
a) Apical dominance
b) Lateral dominance
c) Compensatory effect
d) Over-dominance
3) The removal of apex releases the lateral buds
from apical dominance. It is called:
(Board 2015) 12419047
a) Inhibitory effect
b) Promotery effect
c) Compensatory effect
d) Delaying effect
4) Thimann and Skoog in 1934 showed that apical
dominance was caused by auxin diffusing from the apical bud which inhibited the
growth of lateral shoots is called: 12419048
a) Inhibitory effect
b) Promotery effect
c) Compensatory effect
d) Delaying effect
3) Growth and development in
animals __Chick development
1) At each end of neural tube, a small opening
is present which is called:
12419049
a) Anterior neuropore
b) Posterior neuropore
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
2) At the cephalic end of primitive streak,
closely packed cells form a local thickening known as: (Board 2013) 12419050
a) Hensen's node
b) Primitive ridges
c) Splanchic mesoderm
d) Primitive gut
3) Blastula is characterized by the presence of
a: 12419051
a) Segmentation cavity
b) Blastocoele
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
4) The discoidal cap of cells above the
blastocoele is: 12419052
a) Epiderm b)
Endoderm
c) Hypoblast d) Blastoderm
5)
With the formation of neural tube, there is formation of central nervous
system and the cavity enclosed is 12419053
a) blastocoele b) gastrocoele
c) morocoele d) neurocoel
6) The whole process of formation of nervous
system is called: 12419054
a) nervolation b) spinolation
c) Both a & b d) neurulation
7) In 24 hours embryos, the folding of neural
plate is clearly visible. The embryo is now termed as: 12419055
a) Blastula b) Gastrula
c) neurula d) morula
8) Immediately
after fertilization, the egg undergoes a series of mitotic, divisions, called: 12419056
a) blastulation b) Cleavage
c) Splitting d) Separation
9) Notochord is one of the few prominent
structural features in chick embryo of about: 12419057
a)
18 hours b) 20
hours
c)
22 hours d) 24
hours
10) Neural plate was seen as a flat, thickened
area of ectoderm in chicks of: 12419058
a)
18 hours b) 20
hours
c)
22 hours d) 24
hours
11) A
longitudinal folding has occurred, establishing the neural groove in the mid
dorsal line, on either side of neural folds, in chick embryo of: 12419059
a) 31-32 hours b) 25-26 hours
c) 21-22 hours d) 35-36 hours
12) In incubating
eggs artificially, the incubators are usually regulated at temperature between: 12419060
a)
20-22°C b) 27-29°C
c)
30-32°C d)
36-38°C
13) In the chick
the mesodermal cells migrate medially and caudally from both sides and create a
mid line thickening called: (Board 2016) 12419061
a) Primitive streak
b) Primitive groove
c) Ultra-streak
d) Blastoderm
14) The anterior end of the neural groove is
widest and forms the future brain and rest of portion is future: 12419062
a) Notochord b) Spinal cord
c) Vertebral column d) Cranium
15) The anterior end of the primitive streak is
occupied by an aggregation: 12419063
a) Primitive node
b) Notochordal cells
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
16)
The cavity between the yolk and the endoderm which has been called gastrocoele
is now termed as: 12419064
a) Primitive streak b) Primitive gut
c) Neurocoele d) Blastocoele
17) The cavity formed between somatic and
splanchnic mesoderm is: 12419065
a) Blastocoele b) Gastrocoele
c) Coelom d)
Neurocoele
18) The central part of the blastoderm where the
cells are separated from the yolk is called area: 12419066
a) Opaca b)
Pellucida
c) Detached d) Translucent
19) The discoidal
cap of cells above the blastocoele is called: 12419067
a) Ectoderm b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm d) blastoderm
20) The epiblast is mainly presumptive:
12419068
a) Ectoderm b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm d) Both a & b
21) The lateral plate mesoderm is splitted into
two sheet like layers viz Somatic mesoderm and: 12419069
a) Sexual mesoderm
b) Fanatic mesoderm
c) Splanchnic mesoderm
d) Dermatologic mesoderm
22) The marginal
area of the blastoderm of chick in which the cells remain undetached from the
yolk and closely adherent to it, is called the zone of:
12419070
a) Connection b) Elongation
c) Intersection d) Junction
23) The morula
stage is short lived and soon changes into: 12419071
a) Blastula b) Gastrula
c) Neurula d) Globula
24) The
peripheral part of the blastoderm where the cells lie unseparated from the yolk
is termed as area: 12419072
a) Pellucida
b) Opaca
c) Ploidy
d) Translucent
25) The primitive
streak represents the dorsal and both lateral lips of: 12419073
a) neuropore b) gastropore
c) blastopore d) dermapore
4) Mechanism of
development, Role of Cytoplasm and Nucleus, Concept of differentiation,
Embryonic induction
1) Acetabularia is multicellular: 12419074
a) Fungus b)
Alga
c) Yeast d)
Protozoan
2) Clear cytoplasm produces: 12419075
a) Larval epidermis b) Muscle cells
c) Gut d)
Neural tube
3) An ordered sequence of irreversible steps,
with each step setting, up the necessary conditions for the next step is: 12419076
a) Embryology b) Growth
c) Development d) None
4) Grey equatorial cytoplasm produces:
12419077
a) Notochord b) Neural tube
c) Both a & b d) All of the
above
5) Grey vegetal cytoplasm gives rise to:
12419078
a) Gut b)
Muscle cells (Board 2013)
c) Notochord d) Neural tube
6) In order to
understand the concept of differentiation, Spemann performed a series of
experiments on embryo of:
12419079
a) Fishes b)
Amphibian
c) Reptiles d) Birds
7) It is known that different cytoplasmic
components contain different morpho-genetic determinants that are responsible
for cell: 12419080
a) Division b) Elongation
c) Maturation d) Differentiation
8) On the basis of structure and shape of the
cap, two species of Acetabularia have been identified: 12419081
a)
Acetabularia mediterranea & A.
crenulata
b)
A. typhi & A. mediterranea
c)
A. crenulata & A. sisso
d)
A. crenulata & A. arabica
9) The capacity
of some cells to evoke a specific developmental response in others is called: 12419082
a) Embryonic induction
b) Embryonic orientation
c) Embryonic introduction
d) Embryonic stimulation
10) Which one of
these produces larval epidermis? 12419083
a) Clear cytoplasm
b) Yellow cytoplasm
c) Gray vegetal cytoplasm
d) Gray equatorial cytoplasm
11) Yellow cytoplasm gives rise to: 12419084
a) Muscle cells b) Gut (Board 2013)
c) Notochord d) Neural tube
12) Work on
embryonic induction was reported in 1924 by: 12419085
a) Hans Spemann
b) Hilde Mangold
c) Maradona
d) Both a & b
5) Aging
1) The negative physiological changes in our
body are said to be: 12419086
a) Maturation b) Childhood
c) Aging d)
Displacement
2) The process of aging can be slowed down by: 12419087
a) Better nutrition
b) Improved living conditions
c) Exercise
d) both a and b
3) An inevitable process is: 12419088
a) Regeneration
b) Abnormal development
c) Aging
d) None of these
4) Study of aging is called 12419089
a) Geology b) Gerontology
c) Dermatology d) Teratology
5)
Degeneration and disappearance of the elastic tissues in the tunica
media of the blood vessels results in 12419090
a) Thrombosis
b) Coronary thrombosis
c) Sclerosis
d) Arteriosclerosis
6) Regeneration
1) If lobster loses its pincer claw a new claw: 12419091
a)
Regenerates b)
Never develops
c)
Is ready d)
None of these
2) In plants, regeneration is the basis of plant: 12419092
a)
Proliferation b)
Promulgation
c)
Propagation d)
Dissemination
3) In sponges
due to simple organization sponges possess great power of: 12419093
a)
Digestion b)
Excretion
c)
Reproduction d)
Regeneration
4) The
regeneration of which organ has been studied mostly in salamanders of various
ages: 12419094
a) Limb b) Skin
c)
Tongue d)
Brain
5) The ability
to regain or recover the lost or injured part of the body is called: 12419095
a)
Reformation b)
Replacement
c)
Displacement d)
Regeneration
6) The development and formation of the missing organ
in adult animal is: 12419096
a)
Reformation b)
Replacement
c)
Displacement d)
Regeneration
7) In chordates
the healing of fracture and repair of a skin wound are some other examples of: 12419097
a)
Reformation b)
Regeneration
c)
Dengenration d)
Renaissance
8) Spontaneous
mutation may result in:
a)
Loss of cells 12419098
b)
Degeneration of tissues
c)
Both a & b
d)
None of these
9) The unspecialized cells present in flatworms and planaria are: (Board 2015) 12419099
a)
Neoblast b)
Osteoblast
c)
Osteoclast d)
Chondrocyte
7) Abnormal Development
1) Anything which interferes with the normal
process of development is the factor causing: 12419100
a)
Aging b)
Regeneration
c)
Normalities d)
Abnormalities
2) Environmental factors causing or
contributing to abnormal development are grouped together as: 12419101
a)
teratogens b)
metagens
c)
mutagens d)
Photogens
3) Ionizing radiations (e.g. X rays) are well
known for their: 12419102
a)
Dramatic action
b)Teratogenic
action
c)
Dermatologic action
d)
Damaging action
4) The Syndrome
which is an example of trisomy of the sex, chromosome is:
a)
Turner's syndrome 12419103
b)
Down's syndrome
c)
Klinefelter's syndrome
d)
Tay-Sach's syndrome
5) The
branch of biology, which deals with the abnormal development and causes for
such developments is: 12419104
a)
Teratology b) Geology
c)
Ethology d)
Theology
6) The condition
in which one of the sex chromosomes is missing: 12419105
a) Klinefelter's syndrome
b) Turner's syndrome
c) Down's syndrome
d) Tay-Sach's syndrome
7) Which one of
these is correct about microcephaly individuals: 12419106
a) Small skull
b) Club footed
c) Five fingers
d) Upper lip folded
8) In Microcephaly, the Individuals are born
with small: 12419107
a) Skull b)
Eyes
c) Legs d)
Hands
9) The condition where individuals have their upper lip folded or the
individual has harelip is: 12419108
a)
Club foot b) Cleft palate
c) Folded lips d)
None of above
Short questions
Growth and
development in plants
Q.1:Differentiate between growth and
development. (Board 2006, 07, 10, 14,16) 12419109
Q.2: What is meristem? 12419110
Q.3: What is Apical Meristem?
(Board 2015,16) 12419111
Q.4: What are Intercalary Meristems? (Board 2015) 12419112
Q.5: What are Lateral Meristems?
(Board 2016) 12419113
Q.6: Define differentiation. (Board 2007) 12419114
Q.7: What is Open growth? 12419115
Q 8: What are growing points? 12419116
Q.9: What is secondary growth? 12419117
Q.10: Name the factors by which rate
of growth is influenced? (Board 2016) 12419118
Growth
Correlation
Q.1: What is correlation? 12419119
Q.2: What is the ro1e of cytokinins
in apical dominance? 12419120
Q.3: What was the work of Thimann
and Skoog? 12419121
Q.4: Differentiate between
inhibitory and compensatory effects? 12419122
Chick
Development
Q.1: What is embryology? 12419123
Q.2: What is discoidal cleavage?
(Board 2016) 12419124
Q.4: What is the temperature for incubation for
chick eggs? 12419125
Q.5: Define Cleavage. 12419126
Q.6: What is Morula? 12419127
Q.7: What is Blastula? 12419128
Q.8: What is blastoderm? 12419129
Q.9: What is zone of junction in developing chick
embryo? 12419130
Q.10: Define Gastrulation. 12419131
Q.11: Which two layers are formed from blastoderm
during gastrulation? 12419132
Q.12: What is an area pellucida? 12419133
Q.13: What is an area opaca? 12419134
Q.14: What is Primitive streak? (Board 2008) 12419135
Q.15: What is primitive node? 12419136
Q.16: What is Hensen’s node? (Board 2007) 12419137
Q.17: What is Germ wall? 12419138
Q.18: What is gastrocoele? 12419139
Q.19: How many layers, the lateral plate mesoderm is
splitted into? 12419140
Q.20: What is coelom? 12419141
Q.21: What is Neurulation? 12419142
Q.22: How neural plate is formed?
12419143
Q.23: What is Neurula? 12419144
Q.25: How neural tube is formed in chick embryo? 12419145
Q.26: What are neuropores? 12419146
Q.27: What is neurocoele? 12419147
Q.28: Differentiate between neurula and neurocoele. (Board 2015) 12419148
Embryonic
induction, role of cytoplasm and nucleus
Q.1: Define embryonic induction. (Board 2006, 07) 12419149
Q.2: What was work of Dietrish? 12419150
Q.3: What is Acetabularia? 12419151
Q.4: Define primary organizers and primary induction. 12419152
Aging,
Regeneration, Abnormal development
Q.1: What is an aging, gerontology
and present goal of gerontology? (Board 2010) 12419153
Q.2: Give sumptoms of aging 12419154
OR
What are the important sign of old
age in human? (Board 2014) 12419155
Q.3: Define regeneration. (Board 2013) 12419156
Q.4: What are neoblasts? 12419157
Q.5: Due to what factors normal process of
development is disturbed? 12419158
Q.6:Define abnormal development. 12419159
Q.7: Define Teratology. (Board 2013) 12419160
Q.8: How normal process of development is disturbed? 12419161
Q.9: What are Teratogens?
(Board 2013) 12419162
Q.10: What is Microcephaly? 12419163
Q.11: What is Cleft palate? (Board 2014)
12419164
|
Unit |
CHROMOSOMES &
DNA |
|
20 |
Multiple Choice Questions
Exercise
1) mRNA is synthesized by 12420018
a) DNA polymerase
b) RNA polymerase
c) RNA ligase
d) None of above
2) Which of the following are
nonsencse codons? 12420019
a) AUG b) UAA
c) CUA d) All of above
3) Enzymes are responsible for assembly of 12420020
a) Nucleic acid
b) Proteins
c) Carbohydrates d)
All of the above
4) In bacteria the newly
synthesized mRNA is released in 12420021
a) Nucleous b) Cytoplasm
c) Mitochondria d) Both b and c
1)
Start___ Types of chromosomes
1) The number of chromosomes in
mosquito is: 12420022
a) 3 b) 6
c) 9 d) 12
2) The number of chromosomes in
honeybee is: (Board 2014) 12420023
a) 8 b) 16
c) 32 d) 64
3) The number of chromosomes in corn is:
12420024
a) 5 b) 10
c) 15 d) 20
4) The number of chromosomes in sugarcane is: 12420025
a) 80 b) 40
c) 20 d) 10
5) The number of chromosomes in
frog is: a) 52 b)
26 12420026
c) 13 d) 7
6) The number of chromosomes in a
mouse is.: 12420027
a) 10 b) 20
c) 40 d) 80
7) The number of nucleotides in
the DNA of a typical human chromosome
is about:
12420028
a) 10 million b) 40 million
c) 80 million d) 140
million
8) Chromosomes are composed of: 12420029
a) RNA & protein b) DNA & sugars
c) DNA & fats d) DNA & protein
9) Chromosomes were first observed in 1882 by: 12420030
a) Walther Fleming b) T. H. Morgan
c) Walter Sutton d) John Brown
10) Human cells have 46 chromosomes consisting of: 12420031
a) 20 pairs b) 21 pairs
c) 22 pairs d) 23 pairs
11) A fungus that has only one pair of chromosomes is: 12420032
a) Aspergillus b) Penicillium
c) Saccharomyces d) Rhizopus
12) The number of chromosomes in some ferns is more than: 12420033
a) 200 pairs b) 300 pairs
c) 400 pairs d) 500 pairs
13) The chromosomes acquire different shapes at
the time of: 12420034
a) Anaphase b) Metaphase
c) Prophase d) Telophase
14) The Chromosomes are called telocentric, acrocentric, sub-metacentric and metacentric depending upon the
location of: 12420035
a) blastomere b) micromere
c) centromere d) kinetomere
15) The particular array of
chromosomes that an individual
possesses is called its:
12420036
a) kinetochore b) kinetomere
c) Karyotype d) Karyon
16) Typically a chromosome is made of:
12420037
a) Chromatids
b) Centromeres
c) secondary constriction
d) all of the above
2) Composition
and Chromosomal theory
1) Most chromosomes are about: 12420038
a) 20% DNA & 80% protein
b) 40% DNA & 60% protein
c) 30% DNA & 70% protein
d) 50% DNA & 50% protein
2) The gene causing the white eye
trait in Drosophila resides
only on the: 12420039
a) autosome 3 b) autosome 7
c) Y chromosome d) X chromosome
3) A central role for chromosomes
in heredity was first suggested in 1900, by:
a) Karl Correns (Board
2016) 12420040
b) Gregor Mendel
c) Walter Sutton
d) Walther Fleming
4) A trait determined by a gene
on the X chromosome is said to
be: 12420041
a) Autosomal
b) Pseudoautosomal
c) sex linked
d) both a & b
5) Chromosomal theory of
inheritance was formulated by: 12420042
a) Walther Fleming
b) T. H. Morgan
c) Walter Sutton
d) John Brown
6) Chromosomes segregate during:
a) Amitosis 12420043
b) Mitosis
c) Meiosis
d) None of these
7) The portion of chromatin other
than heterochromatin is called: 12420044
a) Homochromatin b) Euchromatin
c) Achromatin d) All of the
above
8) Every 200 nucleotides, the DNA
duplex is coiled around a core of eight
histone proteins forming a complex
known as a:
a) Histosome 12420045
b) Nucleosome
c) Peroxisome
d) Glyoxysome
9) Highly condensed portions of
the chromatin are called: 12420046
a) Homochromatin b) Euchromatin
c) Heterochromatin d) Achromatin
10) Histones are positively charged
due to an abundance of the basic amino
acids:
a) Arginine b) Lysine 12420047
c) Both a & b d) Alanine
11) If a eukaryotic DNA is examined
with an electron microscope, it
resembles a string of: 12420048
a) Blobs b)
Beads
c) Globules d) Vesicles
12) If the strand of DNA from a
single chromosome were laid out in a
straight line, its length would be
about: 12420049
a) 2cm b) 15cm
c) 5 cm d)
20 cm
13) In 1910 Thomas Hunt Morgan,
studying the fruit fly, Drosophila
melanogaster, detected a mutant: 12420050
a) white eyed male fly
b) white eyed female fly
c) red eyed male fly
d) red eyed female fly
14) The amount of information one chromosome contains would fill about:
12420051
a) 80 printed books of 100
pages each
b) 200 printed books of 1000
pages each
c) 280 printed books of 1000
pages each
d) 380 printed books of 10000
pages each
3)
DNA as hereditary material
1) The first evidence of
hereditary nature of DNA was provided
by: 12420052
a) Frederick Mischer
b)
Walther Fleming
c)
Frederick Griffith
d)
Walter Sutton
2) Adenine and guanine are
called:
12420053
a)
Purines b) Pyrimidines
c)
Both a & b d) None of above
3) P32 and S35
labeled viruses were used in his
experiments by: 12420054
a)
Watson & Crick
b)
Hershey & Chase
c)
Wilkins & Franklin
d)
Correns & Bridge
4) In 1944, Oswald Avery along
with Colin Macleod and Maclyn McCarty repeated experiments of: 12420055
a)
Lamarck b)
Griffith
c)
Darwin d)
Spemann
5) In 1952 by Alfred Hershey and
Martha Chase experimented with
bacteriophages:
a)
T 1 b)
T 2 12420056
c)
T 3 d)
T 4
6) Transformation is the transfer
of genetic material from one cell to
another and can alter the
genetic make up of the: 12420057
a)
donor cell b)
recipient cell
c)
both a & b d)
none of these
4)
Chemical nature of DNA
1) Who showed that the amount of
adenine in DNA always equals the amount
of thymine, and the amount of
guanine always equals the amount of
Cytosine: 12420058
a)
Erwin Chargaff b) James Watson
c)
Martha Chase d) Walter Sutton
2) DNA was discovered in 1869 by:
12420059
a)
Erwin Chargaff
b)
Alfred Hershey
c)
Walter Fleming
d)
Friedrich Miescher
3) Who found that DNA contains
three main components? 12420060
a)
Levine b)
Chargaff
c)
P .A. Levene d) Lorenz
4) The DNA molecule had a shape of a helix with a diameter of 2 nm and a complete helical turn every: 12420061
a) 0.4 nm b) 1.4
nm
c) 2.4 nm d) 3.4
nm
5) The DNA molecule is a
simple: 12420062
a) double helix
b) triple helix
c) double curl
d) double twirl
6) Levene concluded that DNA and
RNA molecules are made of
repeating units called: 12420063
a) nucleosides b) nucleosomes
c) nucleic acids d) nucleotides
7) Miescher extracted a white substance from the nuclei of human
cells and fish sperm. He called this 12420064
a) nuclein b)
nucleic acids
c) nucleoid d)
nucleotide
8) In 1953 Watson and Crick
proposed structure of the: 12420065
a) RNA molecule b) A TP molecule
c) DNA molecule d) NAD molecule
9) In the double helix of DNA
adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with: 12420066
a) Thymine b) Guanine
c) Cytosine d) Uracil
10) In the double Helix of DNA
guanine forms three hydrogen bonds with: 12420067
a) thymine b) guanine
c) cytosine d) uracil
11) X-ray diffraction analysis of DNA was
performed by: (Board 2015) 12420068
a) Erwin Chargaff b)
Watson & Crick
c) Rosalind Franklin d)
Charles Darwin
12) The linkage is called a
phosphodiester bond because the
phosphate group is linked to the two
sugars by means of a pair of: 12420069
a) peptide bonds
b) glucosidic bonds
c) ester bonds
d) hydrogen bonds
13) Thymine, cytosine and uracil
are called:
12420070
a) Purines b)
Pyrimidines
c) Urinates d)
None of these
5)
DNA Replication ____ Replication Process
1) A relatively small enzyme that
plays a supporting role in DNA
replication is:
a) DNA polymerase I 12420071
b) DNA polymerase II
c) DNA polymerase III
d) DNA polymerase IV
2) A role in DNA repair is played
by:
a) DNA polymerase I
12420072
b) DNA polymerase II
c) DNA polymerase III
d) DNA polymerase IV
3) Nucleotides are only added to
the 3' end of a DNA strand by: 12420073
a) DNA polymerase I
b) DNA polymerase II
c) DNA polymerase III
d) DNA polymerase IV
4) Each Okazaki fragment is
synthesized by: a) DNA polymerase I 12420074
b) DNA polymerase II
c) DNA polymerase III
d) DNA polymerase IV
5) Enzyme, primase, constructs an
RNA primer, a sequence of about
10 RNA nucleotides complementary
to the parent DNA: 12420075
a) Pattern b)
Sequence
c) Thread d)
Template
6) Leading strand is built up
simply by adding nucleotides continuously
to its growing: 12420076
a) 5' end b) 3' end
c) both a & b
d) None of the above
7) Okazaki fragments are about
100 -200 nucleotides long in: 12420077
a) Prokaryotes
b) Eukaryotes
c) both a & b d) All of the above
8) Okazaki fragments are about
1000 -2000 nucleotides long in: 12420078
a) Prokaryotes
b) Eukaryotes
c) both a & b
d) All of the above
9) Origin site of replication is
one in:
12420079
a) Prokaryotes
b) Eukaryotes
c) both a & b
d) None of the above
10) There are several origin sites
of replication in: 12420080
a) Prokaryotes
b) Eukaryotes
c) both a & b
d) None of the above
11) Polymerase III progressively threads the DNA through the enzyme complex moving
it at a rapid rate of some: 12420081
a) 4000 nucleotides / second
b) 2000 nucleotides / second
c) 500 nucleotides / second
d) 1000 nucleotides / second
12) The direction of replication is
always:
12420082
a) 3'Ã 5' b) 5'Ã
3'
c) both a & b d) None of the above
13) The DNA replication begins at one or more unique sites, called the origin of replication and proceeds: 12420083
a) unidirectionally
b) bidirectionally
c) multidirectionally
d) none of the above
14) The lagging strand of DNA is
synthesized discontinuously series of
short: 12420084
a) Hanuka segments
b) Okazaki segments
c) Rock segments
d) Goldberg segments
15) The Meselson - Stahl experiment
confirmed the prediction of the
Watson- Crick model that DNA replication
is:
` a) semi-conservative 12420085
b) conservative
c) dispersive
d) semi-dispersive
16) The non-sense codons are
usually present at the end of the gene
and hence they are also called: 12420086
a) start codons b) stop codons
c) terminal codons d) late codons
17) The true E.coli
replicating enzymes is DNA
polymerase: 12420087
a) I b) II
c) III d) IV
18) There are three DNA polymerases
namely I, II and III in: 12420088
a) Virus
b) yeast
c) fungi
d) bacteria
19) The repaired fragments of the
lagging strand are attached by
enzyme: 12420089
a) DNA polymerase
b) RNA ligase
c) DNA ligase
d) DNA topoisomerase
6)
What is gene, Central Dogma, Types of RNA
1) A sequence of three
nucleotides in mRNA is called: 12420090
a) Code b) Codon
c) Anticodon d) None of the above
2) Beadle and Tatum concluded
that genes produce their effects by
specifying the structure of: 12420091
a) amino acids b) vitamins
c) fermenters d) enzymes
3) Beadle and Tatum exposed Neurospora
spores to: 12420092
a) X-rays b) gamma
rays
c) α rays d) β
rays
4) Each enzyme in the arginine
biosynthetic pathway was studied by: 12420093
a) Watson & Crick
b) Beadle & Tatum
c) Hershey & Chase
d) Darwin & Francis
5) DNA changes are called
mutations and the organisms that have undergone such changes are called: 12420094
a) wild types b) changer
c) mutants d)
transmutants
6) Each tRNA has a sequence of
three bases, called anticodon, which is
complementary to codon of: 12420095
a) rRNA b) tRNA
c) mRNA d) cRNA
7) Human cells contain about 45
different kinds of: 12420096
a) tRNA b) rRNA
c) mRNA d) cRNA
8) In 1953, Frederick Sanger,
described the complete sequence of
amino acids of:
12420097
a) myoglobin b) keratin
c) globulin d)
insulin
9) In alkaptonuria the patients
produced urine that contained: 12420098
a) homogentisic acid b) abscisic acid
c) stearic acid d) adenylic
acid
10) Vernon Ingram in 1956
discovered the molecular basis of
sickle cell anaemia, a protein
defect inherited as a: 12420099
a) Mendelian disorder
b) Mongolism
c) Down’s syndrome
d) Non-disjunction
7)
Transcription ______ Genetic Code
1) Copying
of mRNA from DNA is called:
a)
Translation 12420100
b)
Transcription
c) Transduction
d)
Transformation
2) In bacteria the newly
synthesized mRNA is directly released
into: 12420101
a) Protoplasm b)
cytoplasm
c)
nucleoplasm d) none
3) In Eukaryotes the binding
sites of promoter are at: 12420102
a) -20 & -70 b)
-20 & -50
c)
-25 & -70 d)
-35 & -80
4) In prokaryote within promoter
there are two binding sites TTGACA
also called -35 sequence and TATAAT
also called:
12420103
a) -10 sequence b)
-20 sequence
c)
-30 sequence d) -35
sequence
5) Once the transcription has
started the sigma factor is
released and core enzyme moves
over the: 12420104
a) template strand
b)
anti-sense strand
c)
coding strand
d)
both a & b
6) Only one of the two strands of
DNA are transcribed. This strand is
called: 12420105
a)
template strand b) anti-sense strand
c)
sense strand d) both a & b
7) RNA polymerase I synthesizes: 12420106
a) rRNA b) mRNA
c) tRNA d) protein
8) RNA polymerase II,
synthesizes: 12420107
a) rRNA b) mRNA
c) tRNA d) protein
9) RNA polymerase III
synthesizes: 12420108
a) rRNA b) mRNA
c) tRNA d) protein
10) The factor responsible for
correct recognition of binding site
and initiation of transcription
process is: 12420109
a) alpha factor b) sigma factor
c) beta factor d) pi factor
11) Transcription starts at the RNA
polymerase binding site called
promoter on the DNA: 12420110
a) template strand
b) anti-sense strand
c) both a & b d) coding strand
12) The binding of RNA polymerase
to the promoter is the first step
in gene: 12420111
a) translation
b) transcription
c) transduction
d) transformation
13) The cap of mRNA is in the form
of:
12420112
a) ATP b) CTP
c) UTP d) GTP
14) The caps and tails save the
mRNA from variety of: 12420113
a) Nucleases b)
Phosphatases
c) both a & b d) Reductases
15) The ribose of 7 -methyl guanosine
and the first nucleotide of mRNA are
linked by 5' to 5': 12420114
a) bi-phosphate bridge
b) tri-sulphate bridge
c) tri-nitrate bridge
d) tri-phosphate bridge
16) The RNA polymerase enzymes
synthesize RNA from: 12420115
a) 5' -3' direction
b) 3' -5' direction
c) 1' -3' direction
d) 5' -2' direction
17) In transcription, the simplest
stop signal is a series of: 12420116
a) GC base pairs b) AT base pairs
c) AC base pairs d) GT base pairs
18) The strand opposite to template
strand is called: 12420117
a) coding strand b) sense strand
c) anti-sense strand d) both a & b
19) The tail of mRNA is in the form
of Poly A linked to 3' end of the: 12420118
a) rRNA b) mRNA
c) tRNA d) cRNA
20) There is only one type of RNA polymerase in: 12420119
a) Prokaryotes b) Eukaryotes
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
21) Transcription is initiated when
the enzyme RNA polymerase binds to a particular binding site called a: 12420120
a) demoter b) starter
c) promoter d) sigma factor
22) Transcription is the process in
which an RNA copy of the DNA
sequence encoding the gene is produced with the help of: 12420121
a) RNA polymerase
b) DNA polymerase
c) RNA ligase
d) RNA isomerase
23) Every gene starts with codon
AUG, which normally encodes the amino acid:
(Board 2013) 12420122
a) Arginine b) Citrulline
c) Methionine d) lysine
24) Genetic code is a combination
of 3 nucleotides in DNA, which specify a particular: 12420123
a) amino acid b) fatty acid
c) vitamin d)
steroid
25) All the 64 codons were tested: 12420124
a) Marshall Nirenberg
b) Philip Leader
c) Har Gobind Khorana
d) all of the above
26) The code for specifying amino
acids does consist of 3-bases. This is
called the:
12420125
a) doublet code
b) triplet code
c) quadruplet code d)
none of the above
27) Which one of the following is initiation
codon: (Board 2015,16) 12420126
a) AUG b) GUA
c) UGA d) GAC
28) Three codons UAA, UAG and UGA
do not code for any amino acid and
hence are known as: 12420127
a) non-sense codon b) stop codon
c) sense codon d) both a &
b
29) UGA codon is normally a stop
codon but in mitochondria it reads as: 12420128
a) valine b)
tryptophan
c) glutamic acid d) phenylalanine
8)
Translation _____Mutation
1) Amino acids are activated when they react with
ATP in the presence of activating enzyme: 12420129
a) aminoacyl rRNA synthetase
b) aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
c) aminoacyl mRNA synthetase
d) aminoacyl DNA synthetase
2) Successive amino acid bearing tRNAs will bind at: 12420130
a) A site
b) P site
c) E site
d) D site
3) During translation the empty tRNAs will exit the ribosome at: 12420131
a) A site
b) D site
c) E site
d) P site
4) In prokaryotes, translation begins when the initial
portion of mRNA molecule binds
to: 12420132
a) tRNA
b) rRNA
c) amino acid
d) peptide chain
5) In Sickle cell anaemia a point
mutation leads to the change of amino acid glutamic acid into: 12420133
a) arginine b) lysine
c) valine d)
alanine
6) In sickle cell disease, a
single thymine is replaced with an adenine in the DNA that codes for: 12420134
a) valine b)
histidine
c) glycine d)
glutamic acid
7) Point mutations are mutational
changes which affect the message itself, producing alterations in the sequence
of: 12420135
a) DNA b) RNA
c) amino acids d) ATP
8) Proteins called elongation
factors assist in binding tRNA to the
exposed mRNA codon at the: 12420136
a) P site b) E
site
c) A site d) D
site
9) Proteins called initiation
factors position the tRNA on the
ribosomal surface at the:
a) P site b) E site 12420137
c) A site d) D site
10) Sickle cell anaemia and
phenylketonuria are very well known
examples of:
a) point mutation 12420138
b) chromosomal aberration
c) site mutation
d) dot mutation
11) Some
chromosomal aberrations involve:
a) presence of an extra
chromosome b) loss of a
chromosome 12420139
c) both a & b
d) none of the above
12) Synthesis
of proteins is called: 12420140
a) Translation
b) Transcription
c) Transduction
d) Transformation
13) The activating enzyme,
aminoacyl tRNA synthetase, catalyzes
the attachment of amino acid to
specific: 12420141
a) rRNA b) tRNA
c) mRNA d) cRNA
14) The sequence of nucleotides
that determines the amino acid
sequence of a protein is called
a: 12420142
a) allele b)
gene
c) coding gene d) codon
15) The transfer of information
from RNA to proteins is called: 12420143
a) Transcription
b) Transduction
c) Translation
d) Transformation
16) Mutations can broadly be
classified as: (1) chromosomal
aberration and (2): 12420144
a) direct mutation b) dot mutation
c) point mutation d) site mutation
17) In phenylketonuria, phenylalanine
is not degraded because of defective
enzyme phenylalanine: 12420145
a) catalase b) oxidase
c) reductase d) hydroxylase
Short questions
Chromosomes_--
chromosomal theory
Q.1:Who first observed the chromosomes? 12420146
Q.2: What is euchromatin?
(Board 2016)12420147
Q.3 : How long DNA would stretch, if the
DNA in all of the cells of an adult human
were lined up end to end? 12420148
Q.4: What are chromosomes? 12420149
Q.5: What is the number of chromosomes in Pencillium
and ferns? 12420150
Q.6: What a typical chromosome is made up
of? 12420151
Q.7: What is Karyotype? (Board
2014)
12420152
Q.8: What are different types of
Chromosomes depending upon location of centromere? 12420153
Q.9:What
different shapes of chromosomes? 12420154
Q.10: What is the composition of
chromosomes? 12420155
Q.11: How many nucleotides are contained in
a typical human chromosome?
12420156
Q.12:
How much information is contained in one chromosome? 12420157
Q.13:
What is the length of a strand of DNA from a single chromosome? 12420158
Q.14:
What is nucleosomes? 12420159
Q.15:
Why histones are positively charged? 12420160
Q.16: What are supercoils of DNA?12420161
Q.17:
What are heterochromatin? 12420162
Q.18: Define the chromosome theory of
inheritance. (Board 2010)
12420163
Q.19:
What is a sex linked trait? 12420164
Q.20:
What is the structure of a typical nucleotide? 12420165
Q.21:
Compare the euchromatin with heterochromation. (Board
2014,16) 12420166
DNA and DNA Replication
Q.21: What is transformation? (Board 2010,16) 12420167
Q.22: What is nuclein? 12420168
Q.23: What is semi conservative
replication? (Board 2008)12420169
Q.24: How DNA polymerase III can initiate
synthesis of DNA? 12420170
Q.25: What are Okazaki fragments?
(Board
2016) 12420171
Q.26: What is the length of Okazaki
fragments? 12420172
Q.27: Who repeated the experiments of
Griffith? 12420173
Q.28: Why Hershey and Chase are famous for? 12420174
Q.29: What are the main components of DNA? 12420175
Q.30: What is phosphodiester bond or
linkage? (Board 2014) 12420176
Q.31:What is the work of Chargaff?
12420177
Q.32: What is X-ray diffraction? 12420178
Q.33: Who prepared the X-ray diffraction of
DNA? 12420179
Q.34: What does X-ray diffraction of DNA
suggest? 12420180
Q.35: Who proposed the double helical
structure of DNA? 12420181
Q.36: Define replication. 12420182
Q.37: What is Semi-conservative replication
of DNA? (Board 2015) 12420183
Q.38: Define Conservative Replication of
DNA. 12420184
Q.39: What is Dispersive Replication of
DNA? 12420185
Q.40:What was work of Meselson -Stahl? 12420186
Q.41: What is the role of DNA polymerase I? 12420187
Q.42:What is the role of DNA polymerase II?
12420188
Q.43: What is the role of DNA polymerase
III? 12420189
Q.44:What is the direction of replication
on growing DNA strand? 12420190
Q.45: What is the role of DNA ligase?
12420191
RNA, Genetic code ,
Transcription
Q.46: What is "one gene one
polypeptide" hypothesis? 12420192
Q.47: What is transcription? ( Board 2014)
12420193
Q.48: Which codons are called stop codons
and nonsense codon and why? (Board 2007)
12420194
Q.49: What is initiation codon? 12420195
Q.50: What is primer? 12420196
Q.51:What are the three major classes of
RNA? (Baord 2015,16) 12420197
Q.52: What is the function of RNA
polymerase in transcription?(Board 2014)
12420198
Q.53: What is triplet code? (Board-2007) 12420199
Q.54: What is anticodon?
(B-2006) 12420200
Q.55: What is Alkaptonuria? 12420201
Q.56: Why Beadle and Tatum are famous for? 12420202
Q.57: Why Sanger was famous for?
12420203
Q.58: Why Vernon Ingram is famous for? 12420204
Q.59: What is Promotor? (Board-2010)
12420205
Q.60: What is codon? (Board -2006) 12420206
Q.61: What are template and coding strands
of DNA? (Board-2007) 12420207
Q.62: What is the role of RNA polymerase? 12420208
Q. 63:What is core enzyme? 12420209
Q. 64: How many binding sites are found in
promoter of prokaryote and eukaryote? 12420210
Q.67: What is the stop signal for
transcription? 12420211
Q.68: Why a cap and a tail is added to
mRNA? 12420212
Q.
69: What is genetic code?(Board 2014)
12420213
Q.70:What are Chromosomal aberrations? (Board
-2010) 12420214
Q.
71: What is Phenylketonuria?
12420215
Q.
72: What is translation? (Board 2014)
12420216
Q.73: What are Point mutations? (Board 2010,
14) 12420217
Q.74: Give examples of point mutations.
(Board-2010) 12420218
Q.75: What is Sickle cell anaemia? (Board
2010,16) 12420219
Q.76: Sketch a phosphodiester bond.
(Board
2015,16) 12420220
Q.77: Define central dogma.
(Board 2015) 12420221
Unit |
CELL CYCLE |
|
21 |
Multiple
Choice Questions
(1) Introduction
1) The most critical phase of the mitosis is: 12421007
a) prophase b) metaphase
c) anaphase d) telophase
2) During interphase of the cell cycle the chromosomes are not visible even with:
a) compound microscope 12421008
b) light microscope
c) electron microscope
d) phase-contrast microscope
3) Following the G1 is the S-phase during which the DNA is synthesized and chromosomes number is: 12421009
a) four folded b) doubled
c) tripled d)
five fold
4) Full cell cycle in yeast cells has length of:
(Board 2015,16) 12421010
a) 15 minutes b) 30 minutes
c) 60 minutes d) 90 minutes
5) G1 (Gap 1) is the period of: 12421011
a) rest b)
metabolic activity
c) synthesis d)movement
6) G1 is time between the end of
mitosis and initiation of DNA synthesis,
also called as: 12421012
a) Pre-DNA synthesis phase
b) DNA synthesis phase
c) Post-DNA synthesis phase
d) Pre-RNA synthesis phase
7) In case of human cell, cell cycle is about:
12421013
a) 21 hours b)
22 hours
c) 23 hours d)
24 hours
8) In human cell mitosis takes 30 minutes, G1, 9 hours, the S-phase 10
hours, and G2: 12421014
a) 2 hours b) 3 hours
c) 4 hours d) 4.5 hours
9) Interphase can further be divided into:
12421015
a) G1-phase, S-phase and G2-phase
b) G1-phase, G2-phase
and G3-phase
c) S1-phase, S2-phase
and S3-phase
d) S1-phase, G-phase and S2-phase
10) The cell cycle is comprised of two phases or periods: 12421016
a) interphase & mitotic phase
b) nterphase & intraphase
c) mitosis & meiosis
d) amitosis & mitosis
11) The
interphase of meiosis lack: 12421017
a) G1 stage b) G2
stage
c) G3 stage d) G4
stage
12) The period of life cycle of cell (cell cycle) between two consecutive divisions is termed as: 12421018
a) interphase b) resting phase
c) mitotic phase d) both a & b
13) The series of changes which involve period of growths replication of DNA,
followed by cell division may be named as: 12421019
a) DNA cycle b) nuclear cycle
c) cell cycle d) chemical cycle
14) The period of life cycle of cell (cell cycle) between two consecutive divisions is termed as 12421020
a) Interphase b) Anaphase
c) Telophase d) Prophase I
(2) Mitosis ____ cancer
1) A
network of very fine threads called chromatin can be visualized in cell during:
(Board 2014) 12421021
a) Interphase b) Prophase
c) Metaphase d) Anaphase
2) Astral microtubules radiate outward from:
12421022
a) Lysosomes b) Centrioles
c) Golgi complex d) Glyoxysomes
3) Phragmoplast is formed by vesicles originated from: (Board 2015,16) 12421023
a) Lysosomes b) centrioles
c) golgi complex d) glyoxysomes
4) The type of cell division, which ensures the same number of chromosomes in the daughter cells as that in the parent cells is: 12421024
a) amitosis b)
meiosis
c) mitosis d) None of these
5) Mitosis may be divided into two phases:
a) karyokinesis & cytokinesis 12421025 b)
karyokinesis & diakinesis
c) diakinesis & cytokinesis
d) exokinesis & endokinesis
6) Some organisms both plants and animals undergo asexual reproduction which involves: 12421026
a) amitosis b) mitosis
c) meiosis d) None of these
7) The microtubule is composed of
traces of RNA and protein called:(Board 2015) 12421027
a) Myosin b)
Troponin
c) Actin d)
Tubulin
8) The specialized microtubule structure including aster and spindle is called:
a) amitotic apparatus 12421028
b) mitotic apparatus
c) meiotic apparatus
d) golgi apparatus
9) Three sets of microtubules (fibres) originate from each pair of: 12421029
a) Glyoxisomes b) Lysosomes
c) Peroxisomes d) Centrioles
10) Cytoplasm becomes more viscous during: (Board 2015) 12421030
a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase
d) Telophase
11) Regeneration, healing of wounds and replacement of older cells all are the
mitotic. 12421031
a) Apparatus b) Injuries
c) Gifts d)
None of these
12) An unwanted clone of cells formed by uncontrolled growth of cells is: 12421032
a) Tumor b)
growth
c) lump d)
swelling
13) The spread of tumor cells and establishment of secondary areas of growth is called: (Board
2014) 12421033
a) epistasis b) necrosis
c) metastasis d) apoptosis
14) The presence of invading cells in otherwise normal tissue is an indication of: 12421034
a) malignancy b)
melanoma
c) sarcoma d) growth
15) Karyokinesis
involves the division of:
12421035
a) cytoplasm b) nucleus
c) whole cell d)
mitochondria
16) Mitotic apparatus disorganize, nuclear membrane and nucleoli reorganize, forming
two nuclei at two poles of the cell
in: 12421036
a) prophase b) metaphase
c) anaphase d) telophase
17) The hereditary material is equally distributed in the daughter cell in: 12421037
a) meiosis b) mitosis
c) amitosis d) None of these
18) The division of the whole cell is called:
12421038
a) karyokinesis b) diakinesis
c) kryptokinesis d) cytokinesis
19) Cancer is caused mainly by mutations in:
a) sex cells 12421039
b) somatic cells
c) both a & b
d) none of these
20) The tumors which are of small size and localized are: 12421040
a) benign b)
malignant
c) gentle d)
nasty
21) The kinetochore fibres of spindle attach to the kinetochore region of chromosome, and align them at the equator of the spindle forming: 12421041
a) equatorial plate b) metaphase plate
c) central plate d) both a & b
22) The kinetochore microtubules attach to chromosomes at: 12421042
a) kinetochores b) kineties
c) chores d)
centromeres
23) The microtubles of mitotic apparatus are
composed of protein tubulin and traces of: (Board 2016) 12421042-a
a) RNA b)
DNA
c) Fats d)
Glycerol
(3) Meiosis ____ Significance
1) Crossing over and random assortment of chromosomes are significant happenings of: 12421043
a) mitosis b) amitosis
c) meiosis d) All of these
2) During Anaphase the separation of homologous chromosomes is: 12421044
a) random b)
hit and miss
c) arbitrary d) haphazard
3) The condensation of chromosomes reaches to its maximum during: 12421045
a) leptotene b) pachytene
c) zygotene d) diakinesis
4) Each bivalent
has: 12421046
a) two chromatids b) four chromatids
c) both a & b d)
none
5) Each metaphase chromosome is a duplicated structure which consists of two sister chromatids, attached at a point called: 12421047
a) centromere
b) primary constriction
c) both a & b
d) secondary constriction
6) Each paired complex structure of homologous chromosomes is called as:
a) bivalent b)
tetrad 12421048
c)
none d)
both a & b
7) In anaphase I, in contrast to anaphase of mitosis, sister chromatids are not: 12421049
a) joined b)
separated
c) curled d)
rotated
8) The paired chromosomes repel each other and begin to separate in: 12421050
a) leptotene b) zygotene
c) pachytene d) diplotene
9) The chromosomes become visible, shorten and thick in: 12421051
a) leptotene b) zygotene
c) pachytene d) diplotene
10) First essential phenomenon of meiosis i.e., pairing of homologous chromosomes called
synapsis starts in: 12421052
a) leptotene
b) zygotene
c) pachytene
d) diplotene
11) Meiosis
II is just like the: 12421053
a) amitosis b) regeneration
c) mitosis d) replacement
12) Meiosis is the special type of cell division in
which the number of chromosomes
in daughter cells reduces 12421054
a) half b)
one third
c) one fourth d) one fifth
13) Chromosome number is kept constant generation after generation in: 12421055
a) amitosis b)
meiosis
c) mitosis d)
none
14) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes exchange their segments due to chiasmata formation, during the process called: 12421056
a) linkage b)
crossing over
c) recombination d)
epistasis
15) Nuclear membrane disorganizes at the beginning of: 12421057
a) prophase I b)
metaphase I
c) anaphase I d)
telophase I
16) The stage that may lasts for days, weeks or even years is: 12421058
a) leptotene b)
zygotene
c) pachytene d)
diplotene
17) Leptotene and
zygotene can last only for:
12421059
a) few seconds b)
few minutes
c) few hours d)
few days
18) Shape of the plant cell does not change greatly compared with an animal cell because it is surrounded by a rigid:
12421060
a) cell membrane b)
capsule
c) sheath d)
cell wall
19) The pairing of homologous chromosomes is completed in: 12421061
a) leptotene b)
zygotene
c) pachytene d)
diplotene
20)
Meiosis takes place in: 12421062
a) Haploid cells b) Diploid cells
c) Both a & b d) None of these
21) The first essential phenomenon of meiosis is the: 12421063
a) Size of chromosome
b) Chromosome appearance
c) Chromosome separation
d) Pairing of chromosomes.
22) Which one of these lasts for many days, weeks or even years. 12421064
a) Pachytene b)
Leptotene
c) Diplotene d)
Zygotene
23) The
interphase of meiosis lack: 12421065
a) G1 stage b)
G2 stage
c) G3 stage d)
G4 stage
24) Synapsis occurs during: (Board 2014)
12421066
a) Pachytene b)
Leptotene
c) Zygotene d)
Diplotene
25) In which stage of prophase I-crossing over occurs. (Board 2016) 12421066
a) Leptotene b)
Zygotene
c) Pachytene d)
Diplotene
(4) Non-Disjunction _____
Necrosis , Apoptosis
1) Autosomal non-disjunction may occur in other than: 12421067
a) 9th chromosome
b) 11th chromosome
c) 19th chromosome
d) 21st chromosome
2) Down’s Syndrome (Mongolism) occurs in man, during which 21st chromosome
fails to segregate, resulting
gamete with:
a) 20 chromosomes 12421068
b) 21 chromosomes
c) 22 chromosomes
d) 24 chromosomes
3) The individuals have additional sex chromosome in: 12421069
a) Klinefelter's Syndrome
b) Turner's syndrome
c) Down's syndrome
d) Sach's syndrome
4) In non-disjunction chromosomes fail to segregate during: 12421070
a) prophase & metaphase
b) anaphase & metaphase
c) anaphase & telophase
d) prophase & telophase
5) The affected individuals have one missing X chromosome with only 45 chromosomes in: 12421071
a) Klinefelter's Syndrome
b) Turner'syndrome
c) Down's syndrome
d) Sach's syndrome
6) Internal programme of events and sequence of morphological changes by which
cell commit suicide is collectively called
as: 12421072
a) suicidal attack b) necrosis
c) apoptosis d) autophagocytosis
7) Non-disjunction appears to occur in the ova and related to the age of: 12421073
a) child b)
father
c) mother d)
both b & c
8) The cell death due to tissue damage is called: 12421074
a) apoptosis
b) necrosis
c) autophagocytosis
d) both a & b
9) The chances of teenage mother having downs syndrome child is: 12421075
a) one in one hundred
b) one in one thousand
c) one in many thousands
d) one in ten thousands
10) Cells in an organism depend upon various extracellular and intercellular. 12421076
a) Spaces b)
Areas
c) Signals d) Distances
11) During development most of the neurons in the human body. 12421077
a) Die b)
Store food
c) become large d) Become small
12) Klinefelter's syndrome usually occurs in
12421078
a) Female b) Male
c) None of these d) Both a & b
Short questions
Introduction
Q.1:
What is cell cycle? (Make
sketch) (Board-2010) 12421079
Q.2:
How much time is required for cell cycle in case of human? 12421080
Q.3:
What do you know about chromatin? 12421081
Q.4:
Name the different stages of interphase. 12421082
Q.
5: What is G1-phase? 12421083
Q.6:
What is Go Phase? 12421084
Q.7:
What is S-Phase of cell cycle? 12421085
Q.8:
What happens in G2-phase (pre-mitotic phase)? 12421086
Mitosis ___ cancer
Q.1: Define mitosis. 12421087
Q.2: What are the two conventional phases of Mitosis? OR 12421088
Differentiate between
karyokinesis and cytokinesis. (Board 2014) 12421089
Q.3: What is Mitotic apparatus?
(Board 2016) 12421090
Q.4:
Name the microtubules which originate from centrioles. 12421091
Q.5: What events occur in Prophase of mitosis? (MB-2007) 12421092
Q.6:
What is kinetochore?(Board-2008)
12421093
Q.7:
What happens in Telophase of mitosis? 12421094
Q.8:
What is Phragmoplast? (Board 2010) 12421095
Q.9:
In higher plants instead of visible centriole what is present? 12421096
Q.10: What is Tumor? (MB-2006) 12421097
Q.11: Define cancer. 12421098
Q.12:
What are two basic types of tumors? 12421099
Q.13:
What is benign tumors? 12421100
Q.14:
What is malignant tumor?
(Board 2006) 12421101
Q.15:
What are the main causes of cancer? 12421102
Q.16: How can you distinguish cancer cells from
normal cells? 12421103
Q.17:What
is metastasis?
(Board 2016) 2421104
Meiosis and its Significance
Q.1: Define meiosis. 12421105
Q.2: When in plants and animals the meiosis takes place? 12421106
Q.3: Define crossing over? 12421107
Q.4: What are the two significant happenings of of meiosis? 12421108
Q.5: How prophase of meiosis differs from that of mitosis? 12421109
Q.6: What are homologous
chromosomes? 12421110
Q.7: Name the substages of
prophase I of meiosis. 12421111
Q.8: What is synapsis? 12421112
Q.9: What is bivalent or tetrad? 12421113
Q.10: What is the duration of Pachytene, leptotene and zygotene? 12421114
Q.11: What is chiasmata? 12421115
Q.12: What happens in Diakinesis? 12421116
Q.13:What events occur in metaphase I of meiosis? 12421117
Q.14: How meiosis maintains chromosome number constant generation after
generation? 12421118
Q.15: How does anaphase I of meiosis differs from that of mitosis? 12421119
Q.16: What changes occurs in
dividing cell during deplotene? (Board 2014) 12421120
Non-Disjunction, Necrosis, Apoptosis
Q.1: Define non-disjunction. (Board 2014)
12421121
Q.2: What is autosomal non-disjunction? 12421122
Q.3: Does Downs syndrome is related to the age of mother? 12421123
Q.4: What are apparent symptoms or effects of Downs’s syndrome?
(Board 2016) 12421124
Q.5: What is sex chromosomal non-disjunction? 12421125
Q.6: What is Down’s Syndrome (Mongolism)? (Board -2008)
12421126
Q.7: How many chromosomes do occur in male affected by Klinefelter's
syndrome? 12421127
Q.8: What are the symptoms of Turner's syndrome? 12421128
Q.9: What is Necrosis? (Board-2006) 12421129
Q.10: What is apoptosis? (Borad
-2006-07) 12421130
Q.11: What changes occur in a cell during opoptosis? (Borad 2016)
12421130-a
|
Unit |
VARIATION AND
GENETICS |
|
22 |
Multiple Choice Questions
Exercise
1. When a single gene has multiple phenotypic effects, the phenomenon is called: 12422022
a) Codominance b) Epistasis
c) Pleiotropy d) Sex -linkage
2. What happens when both alleles of a gene pair independently express in a heterozygote? 12422023
a) Dominance
b) Incomplete dominance
c) Over dominance
d) Codominance
3. A heterozygote offspring quantitatively exceeds the phenotypic expression of both the homozygote parents due to:
a) Dominance 12422024
b) Incomplete dominance
c) Over dominance
d) Codominance
4. How many gene pairs contribute to the wheat grain colour? 12422025
a) One b)
Two
c) Three d)
Four
5. Who for the first time found white eye mutant in Drosophila? 12422026
a) Morgan b)
Bridges
c) Correns d) De Varies
6. Which of the following traits is transmitted directly from an affected father to only his sons? 12422027
a) Autosomal b) X -linked
c) Y -linked d) X and Y
linked
7. Which phenomenon reduces the chances of genetic recombination and variations among offspring? 12422028
a) Linkage
b) Crossing over
c) Independent assortment
d) Dominance
8. Which of the following traits
is not sex - linked recessive? 12422029
a) Haemophilia
b) Colour blindness
c) Hypophosphatemic ricket
d) tfm syndrom
9. Which of these traits zigzags from maternal grand father through a
carrier daughter to a grandson? 12422030
a) Autosomal b) X -linked
c) Y -linked d) X and Y linked
10. When a haemophilic carrier woman marries a normal man, who among her offspring may be affected. 12422031
a) All her children
b) All her daughters
c) Half of her daughter
d) Half of her sons
11. What is the risk of a colour
blind child in a family when mother
colour blind but father is normal? 12422032
a) 100% b) 75%
c) 50% d) 25%
12. What is the risk of a colour blind child in a family when father colour blind but mother is normal? 12422033
a) Zero % b) 25%
c) 50% d)
100%
1)
Alleles, genes, gene pool
1) The basic unit of biological
information is: 12422034
a) nucleus b)
gene
c) zygote d) gamete
2) Genes are located at specific
loci on:
12422035
a) chromatids b) chromosomes
c) centromeres d) homologues
3) Hereditary characteristics
pass from parents to offspring through
genes in their: 12422036
a) nuclei b)
DNA
c) gametes d) body
4) Each allele of a gene pair
occupies the same gene locus on
its respective: 12422037
a) homologue
b) chromatid
c) chromosome d) all of the above
5) The total genetic information encoded in the total genes in a breeding population existing at a given time 12422038
a) gene pool b) gene pond
c) gene puddle d) gene tran
6) Partners of a gene pair are
called: 12422039
a) multiple alleles b) co-ordinator
c) alleles d)
polygeries
7) The form of appearance of a
trait is called: 12422040
a) Genotype b) Phenotype
c) morphology d) allelomorph
8) The position of a gene on the
chromosome is called its: 12422041
a) locus b)
point
c) location d) place
9) The form of appearance of a
trait is:
12422042
a) Genotype b) Phenotype
c) Both a & b d)
Neither a nor b
2)
Mendel and Mendel’s Laws
1) A true -breeding variety upon
self - fertilization always produced
offspring identical to: 12422043
a) Each other
b) Parents
c) Next generation
d)Previous generation
2) The two coexisting alleles for
each trait in an individual segregate
from each other, so that each
gamete receives only one of the
two alleles: 12422044
a) Law of segregation
b) Law of independent
assortment
c) Law of co dominance
d) Hardy-Weinberg Principle
3) All the genes / alleles found
in a breeding population at a given
time are collectively called the: (Board 2014)
12422045
a) Gene pond b) Gene puddle
c) Gene tank d) Gene pool
4) An individual with a
heterozygous genotype is a: 12422046
a) Homozygote b) Heterozygote
c) Both a & b d) None of
these
5) An individual with a
homozygous genotype is a: 12422047
a) Homozygote b) Heterozygote
c) Both a & b d) None of
these
6) Mendel called the offspring of
first parents as: 12422048
a) F1 b) first filial
generation
c) both a & b d) first generation
7) Mendel called the trait that
appeared in F1 as: 12422049
a) dominant b) recessive
c) over-dominant d) excessive
8) Mendel called the trait, which
was hidden F1, as: 12422050
a) dominant b) recessive
c) over-dominant d) excessive
9) Mendel presented his findings
to Brunn Society for the study of
Natural Science in: 12422051
a) 1665. b) 1765
c) 1865 d)
1965
10) Mendel proposed that each contrasting form of a trait, e,g roundness
or wrinkledness of seed was determined by
particulate hereditary factors, which are called: 12422052
a) menten b)
elementen
c) both a &b d) none
11) The homologous pairs of
chromosomes in pea is: 12422053
a) seven b) nine
c) five d)
eight
12) The chance of an event to occur
is called:
12422054
a) likelihood b) possibility
c) probability d)
prospect
13) Test cross is a mating in which an individual showing a dominant phenotype is crossed with an individual showing
its: a) co-dominant phenotype 12422055
b) over-dominant phenotype
c) recessive phenotype
d) all of the above
14) Mendel called the trait that appeared in F1 as: 12422056
a) Dominant b) Recessive
c) Both a & b d) Neither a nor b
15) When two contrasting pairs of traits are followed in the same
cross, then alleles assort independently in: 12422057
a) Egg b)
Sperm
c) Zygote d)
Gametes
16) The homologous pairs of chromosomes present in pea are: 12422058
a) 8 b)
6
c) 7 d)
9
17) Different alleles of a gene that. are both expressed heterozygous condition are called: 12422059
a) dominant
b) codominant
c) incomplete dominant
d) recessive
18) A physiological effect of an allele over its partner allele on the same gene locus is:
a) codominance 12422060
b) over dominance
c) dominance
d) complete dominance
19) The relationship between alleles of the same gene occupying the same locus is:
a) codominance 12422061
b) over dominance
c) dominance
d) complete dominance
20) If a man of M blood group marries a woman of N blood group, all their children
will have blood group: 12422062
a) MM b)
NN
c) MN d)
None of these
21) Landsteiner and Levine discovered MN blood types in man on the basis of specific
antigens present on: 12422063
a) RBC b)
plasma
c) WBC d)
platelets
22) When the phenotype of the heterozygote is intermediate between phenotypes of the two homozygotes, it is called: 12422064
a) incomplete dominance
b) partial dominance
c) co-dominance
d) Both a &b
3) Multiple Alleles , Erythroblastosis
1) The individuals called universal recipients have: 12422065
a) A blood group b) B blood group
c) O blood group d) AB blood group
2) In 1901, ABO blood group system was
discovered by: (Board 2014) 12422066
a) Karl Land Steiner b) Bernstein
c) Correns d)
T. H. Morgan
3) ABO locus is on chromosome 9, while H locus is on chromosome: 12422067
a) 20 b)
19
c) 18 d)
17
4) ABO system has four different phenotypes which are distinct from each other on the basis of specific
antigens on the surface of: 12422068
a) Mitochondria b) golgi bodies
c) RBC d)
centrioles
5) All the altered alternate forms of a gene, whose number is more than two, are called: 12422069
a) Polygenes
b) manifold alleles
c) Multiple alleles
d) allelomorphs
6) An O recipient can only be given transfusion from a donor: 12422070
a) A b)
B
c) AB d)
O
7) B phenotype contains anti-A antibodies in the serum and agglutinate any RBC with antigen: 12422071
a)
AB b)
O
c) A d)
B
8) In 1925 Bernstein explained the genetic basis of: 12422072
a) ABO system b) Rh system
c) MN system d) MNS system
9) Bilirubin damages brain cells and turn skin and whites of the eye yellow.
This condition is: 12422073
a) Hepatitis b) Leukemia
c) Jaundice d) Botulism
10) Individuals called universal donors are:
a)
A b)
B 12422074
c) O d)
AB
11) O blood has neither A nor B antigen, but it does have: 12422075
a) anti -A antibodies
b) anti-B antibodies
c) anti -O antibodies
d) both a & b
12)The
anaemic foetus starts to release many immature
erythroblasts into his blood stream
in: 12422076
a) Anaemic foetalis
b) Leukaemia
c) Erythroblastosis foetalis
d) Elephantalis
13) Maternal -foetal (Erythroblastosis foetalis) incompatibility results when an Rh- woman, married to an Rh+ man conceives a child who is: 12422077
a) RhO b)
Rh+
c) Rh d) both b & c
14) Mendel called the offspring of first parents as: 12422078
a) F1
b)
first filial generation
c)
both a & b
d) first generation
15) Persons having genotype DD or Dd have Rh- factor on their RBC and are: 12422079
a) Rh– b) Rh+
c) Rh+ d) None of above
16) Persons with genotype dd do not have Rh -factor and are: 12422080
a) Rh– b) Rh+
c) Botha a and b d) none of the above
17) Phenotype AB has neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies in the: 12422081
a) blood b)
serum
c) plasma d)
all of the above
18) Rh -blood group system is defined on the basis of Rh –factor present on the surface of: 12422082
a) RBC b)
WBC
c) platelets d)
all a, b, c
19) Rh -blood group system is named Rh after: (Board 2016) 12422083
a) Rhesus donkey
b) Rhesus monkey
c) Rhesus skunk
d) Rhesus man
20) Rh -antigen was first discovered in it by:
12422084
a) Morgan b)
Mendel
c) Landsteiner d)
Correns
21) The blood serum containing antibodies is called: 12422085
a) antigen
b) antiserum
c) immunoglobin
d) None of these
22) The blood serum of A phenotype contains: 12422086
a) anti-A antibodies
b) anti-B antibodies
c) anti-AB antibodies
d) none of the above
23) The breakdown product of RBC is called: 12422087
a) haemorubin b)
erythrorubin
c) biligen d)
bilirubin
24) The serum of O blood type contains:
a) anti-A antibodies 12422088
b) anti-B antibodies
c) both a & b
d) none
25) All such altered alternate forms of a gene, whose number is more than two, are called: 12422089
a) Magnitude allele
b) Multiple allele
c)Jumping gene
d) Mutant Allele
26)
Secretors have dominant secretor gene “se” on chromosome: (Board
2014) 12422090
a) 9 b) 19
c) 21 d)
24
4)
Epistasis, pleiotropy
1) A gene with multiple
phenotypic effects is called: 12422091
a)
multiple allele b) pleiotropic
c)
polygenic d)
Bombay allele
2) The interaction between
different genes occupying different
loci is: 12422092
a)
Pleiotropy b)
Epistasis
c)
Bombay phenotype d) linkage
3) Genes that affect growth rate
in humans also influence: 12422093
a)
weight b)
height
c)
both a & b d)
intelligence
4) In cats the dominant allele W
not only makes fur pure white but
also causes: 12422094
a)
black spots b)
brown colour
c)
tallness d)
deafness
5) In cats, melanocyte failure
causes both phenotypes, i.e.,: 12422095
a)
white fur and deafness
b)
white fur and black spots
c)
black fur and white spots
d)
black fur and deafness
6) The expression of ABO, blood
type antigens by IA or IB
gene depends upon the presence of another gene: 12422096
a) L b) M
c) G d) H
7) When a single gene affects two
or more traits, the phenomenon
is called: 12422097
a) dominance b)
over-dominance
c) epistasis d) pleiotropy
8) White eye gene in Drosophila
also affects the shape of: 12422098
a) eye
b) wings,
c) sperm storing organs
d) heart muscles
5)
Polygenes
1) A continuously
varying trait is encoded by alleles of two or more different gene pairs found at different loci all influencing the same trait in an: 12422099
a) Stabilizer way b) preservative way
c) additive way d) all a, b, c
2) The amount of wheat
grain colour is influenced by
environmental factors:
a) light b)
water 12422100
c) nutrients d) all a, b, c
3) Human height is a
more complex: 12422101
a) epistatic trait b) multiple trait
c) pleiotropic
trait d)
polygenic trait
4) Human skin colour is
also a quantitative trait which is
controlled by:
a) 3 -6 gene pairs (Board 2015)
12422102
b) 1 -3 gene pairs
c) 2 -6 gene pairs
d) 3'- 9 gene pairs
5) Intelligence is also a case of
polygenic inheritance which is
strongly influenced by: 12422103
a) genes b)
environment
c) experience d)
nature
6) The genetics of wheat grain
colour was studied by: 12422104
a) Mendel b)
Nilsson -Ehle
c) Morgan d) Correns
7) Tallness in humans is
recessive to:12422105
a) fatness b)
whiterless
c) shortness d)
intelligence
8) The quantitative traits are called polygenic traits, and their genes are: 12422106
a) multigenes
b) polygenes
c) both a & b
d) allelomorphs
6)
LiNkage and Crossing Over
1) A chromosome carries its
linked genes en bloc in the form of a: 12422107
a) recombinant group
b) linkage group
c) both a & b
d) none of the above
2) All the genes present on a
homologous pair of chromosome are
linked to each other in the form of 12422108
a) Linkage group
b) homo-group
c) hetero-group
d) recombinant group
3) The proportion of recombinant
types between two gene pairs as
compared to the sum of all
combinations is: 12422109 a)
Cross over
b) recombination frequency
c) non rcombination frequency d) both a &
b
4) Crossing over is an exchange
of segments between non-sisters
chromatids of homologous
chromosomes during:
12422110
a) mitosis b)
meiosis
c) amitosis d) both a
& b
5) Exchange of chromosome
segments logically means exchange of DNA,
i.e.
12422111
a) genes b)
alleles
c) both a & b d) none
6) Genes can be mapped on a
chromosome on the basis of their
recombination:
12422112
a) styles b)
fashions
c) frequencies d) ratios
7) Genes for colour blindness,
haemophilia, gout and
hypophosphatemic rickets form one
linkage group on human: 12422113
a) autosome 9 b) autosome 19
c) Y –chromosomes d)
X -chromosome
8) Genes for sickle -cell anaemia
and albinism make a linkage group on
human chromosome: 12422114
a) 11 b) 13
c) 15 d) 17
9) Linked genes can be separated
by:
12422115
a) recombination b) transduction
c) transformation d) crossing over
10) Linked genes do not obey
Mendel's law of independent assortment,
because these cannot assort
independently during:
12422116
a) mitosis b)
meiosis
c) amitosis d) both a & c
11) The number of linkage groups
in man is:
a) 46 b) 21 12422117
c) 22 d) 23
12) The farther apart two genes
lie, greater are chances of their
separation through:
12422118
a) crossing over b) linkage
c) pleiotropy d) epistasis
13) The homologous chromosomes pair
up length wise: 12422119
a) point to point b) locus to locus
c) both a & b d) none
14) The phenomenon of staying
together of all the genes of a chromosome is called:
12422120
a) crossing over b) epistasis
c) pleiotropy d) linkage
15) The recombination frequency is
directly proportional to the
distance between the:
a) linked gene loci 12422121
b) cross over gene loci
c) both a & b
d) none of the above
7)
Sex Determination
1) A clear picture of the genetic basis of sex determination emerged after the discovery of: 12422122
a) Autosomes
b) X chromosomes
c) sex chromosomes
d) Y chromosomes
2) All chromosomes other than sex- chromosomes are called: 12422123
a) Sexosomes
b) Autasomes
c) Heterosomes
d) Homosomes
3) Morgan raised cultures of Drosophila
flies to study different traits,
such as colour of the: 12422124
a) skin b)
hair
c) wings d) eye
4) Morgan's discovery of
sex-linked inheritance was a great
contribution to the understanding of: 12422125
a) genes b)
chromosome
c) both a & b d) sex-linkage
5) Normal fruit flies, the wild
type, have eyes: 12422126
a) bright red b) purple red
c) white d) blue
6) The number of chromosomes in
fruit fly, Drosophila melanogaster
is: 12422127
a) 2 b) 4
c) 8 d) 16
7) The search for mechanism of
inheritance of sex started after
discovery of: 12422128
a) Morgan's work
b) Bridge's work
c) Mendel's work d) Mathew's work
8) X and Y chromosomes are called sex- chromosomes because these have genes For determination of: 12422129
a) sex
b) sex organs
c) reproductive system
d) sex hormones
9) XO -XX type of sex
determination is found in: 12422130
a) grass hopper b) Protenor bug
c) both a & b d) Butterflies
10) XO Turner's syndrome in humans produced through non-disjunction is sterile: 12422131
a) male b) female
c) both a & b d) none of the above
11) ZZ -ZW type of sex - determination pattern is common in 12422132
a) Grass hoppers b) Fruit fly
c) moths d)
Protenur bug
12) XX -XY type or ZZ -ZW type of
sex - determination pattern was
discovered by J. Seiler in 1914
in: 12422133
a) birds b)
butterflies
c) moths d) all
a, b, c
13) The type of sex determination
found in Drosophila, man and
many other organisms is: 12422134
a) XX-XY b) XY-XX
c) XO -XX d) WZ –ZZ
8)
Sex-LINKAGE in Drosophila
1) An unusual white-eye male Drosophila fly mutant was
observed by: 12422135
a)
T. H. Morgan
b)
Calvin Bridges
c)
Correns
d)
Mendel
2) Drosophila males are: (Board 2014) 12422136
a)
homozygous b)
heterozygous
c)
semizygous d)
hemizygous
3) In Drosophila XO is a
sterile: 12422137
a)
female b)
male
c)
none d)
both a & b
4) Morgan raised cultures of Drosophila
flies to study different traits,
such as colour of the: 12422138
a)
skin b)
hair
c)
wings d)
eye
5) Morgan's discovery of
sex-linked inheritance was a great
contribution to the understanding of: 12422139
a)
genes b)
chromosome
c)
both a & b d)
sex-linkage
6) Normal fruit flies, the wild
type, have eyes: 12422140
a)
bright red b)
purple red
c)
white d)
blue
7) Some genes like bobbed gene in
Drosophila are present on: 12422141
a)
X b)
Y
c)
X and Y d) none
8) The gene for eye colour in Drosophila
is located on: 12422142
a) autosome 2 b) autosome 4
c) Y chromosome
d) X chromosome
9) The inheritance of eye colour
in Drosophila, some how
seemed to be related to the: 12422143
a) sex b)
feather
c) intelligence d) eye shape
10) The X -and -Y linked genes are
also called: 12422144
a) pseudo genes
b) autosomal genes
c) jumping genes
d) pseudoautosomal genes
11) T.H. Morgan provided
experimental evidence in
support of chromosomal theory of
heredity through discovery of sex
linkage in fruit fly: 12422145
a) Drosophila b) Anolis
c) Macaca, d) Anopheles
12) Allele for whiteness in Drosophila
is:
12422146
a) Dominant b)
Codominant
c) Recessive d) All of the
above
13) Who for the first time found
white mutant in Drosophila? 12422147
a) Morgan b) Bridges
c) Correns d) De
Varies
14) XO Turner's syndrome in humans produced through non-disjunction is sterile: 12422148
a) male b)
female
c) both a & c d) none of
these
15) XXY individual produced through
non disjunctional gametes in
humans is a sterile male called: 12422149
a) Klinefelter's syndrome
b) Turner's syndrome
c) Down's syndrome
d) Sach's syndrome
9) Sex -Linkage in Man
A)
Haemophilia
1) 80% haemophiliacs, suffer trom hemophilia
A due to abnormality of factor 12422150
a) VIII b)
IX
c) X d) XI
2) About 20% haemophilia suffer
from hemophilia B due to
disturbance in factor:
a) VIII b)
IX 1242215
c) X d) XI
3) Chances for a man to be
affected by haemophilia A & B than a
woman are:
12422152
a) None b)
Double
c) Triple d)
four times
4) Chances for a son or daughter in human birth are: 12422153
a) 3: 1 between son and daughter
b) 1:3 between son and daughter
c) Equal
d) unequal
5) Humans have many X -linked traits of which haemophilia and colour blindness are: 12422154
a) dominant b) recessive
c) codominant d) over
dominant
6) Less than 1 % people suffer from haemophilia C due to reduction in factor:
a) IX b)
X 12422155
c) XI d)
XII
7) A sex-limited trait is limited
to only one sex due to: 12422156
a) Taxonomic differences
b) Ecological differences
c) Physiological differences
d) Anatomical differences
8) A woman can be bald only when
she is:
a) Homozygous dominant 12422157
b) Heterozygous
c) homozygous recessive
d) none of these
9) A Y -linked trait 'SRY' gene
on Y chromosome determines: 12422158
a) Femaleness b) Baldness
c) Deafness d) maleness
10) Hypophosphatemic rickets is an
X - linked: 12422159
a) dominant trait
b) recessive trait
c) codominanttrait
d) over dominant trait
11) Pattern ,baldness is a: 12422160
a) sex limited trait
b) sex linked trait
c) both a & c
d) sex influenced trait
12) Haemophilia C: (Board 2015) 12422161
a) Affects both sexes equally
b) Affects men more than women
c) Affects women more than men d)
Is non-allelic receivers sex-linked
13) SRY gene on Y chromosome of man
determines: 12422162
a) Maleness b) Femaleness
c) Both a & b d) Sterility
14) SRY is the male determining
gene which is located at the tip of
short arm of:
a) X-chromosome 12422163
b) Y-chromosome
c) autosome 9
d) autosome 19
15) The gene that triggers development
process towards maleness is:
(Board 2016)
12422163-a
a) tfm b)
SRY
c) MODY d) BOB
B) Colour blindness
1) A dichromat can perceive two
primary colours but is unable to
perceive the one whose opsins
are missing due to: 12422164
a) Metamorphosis b) Transmutation
c) Alteration d) Mutation
2) A monochromat can perceive: 12422165
a) three colors b) yellow color
c) only one color d) two colors
3) Blue cone monochromacy is also
called: a) red -green
colour blindness 12422166
b) red -blue colour blindness
c) green -blue colour
blindness
d) yellow -blue colour
blindness
4) An X -linked recessive trait
in which both red and green cone cells
are absent is:
a) blue cone monochromacy 12422167
b) red cone monochromacy
c) green cone monochromacy
d) Red green monochromacy
5) Green colour blindness is
called: 12422168
a) Deuteranopia b) Protanopia
c) Tritanopia d) Tetranopia
6) Each type of cone cell has
specific light absorbing protein
called: 12422169
a) photins b) opsins
c) neurins d) butins
7) The genes for red and green
opsins are on: 12422170
a) X chromosome b) Y chromosome
c) autosome 1 d) autosome 5
8) The gene for blue opsin is
present on autosome: 12422171
a) 11 b) 3
c) 5 d) 7
9) The true colour blindness is: 12422172
a) Monochromacy
b) Dichromacy
c) Trichromacy
d) Tetrachromacy
10) Normal trichromatic colour vision is based on three different kinds of cone cells in the: 12422173
a) brain b)
retina
c) liver d)
skin
11) Red colour blindness is: 12422174
a) protanopia b) deuteranopia
c) tritanopia d) tetranopia
12) Tritanopia is: 12422175
a) green blindness
b) blue blindness
c) red blindness
d) yellow blindness
10)
Diabetes mellitus
1) About 50% of cases of MODY are
caused by mutations in: (Board 2013) 12422176
a) kinase gene
b) galactokinase gen
c) Isomerase gene
d) glucokinase gene
2) 90% of all diabetic patients
are: 12422177
a) Diabetes mellitus type I
b) Diabetes mellitus type II
c) Diabetes mellitus type III
d) Diabetes mellitus type IV
3) Diabetes mellitus type II is: 12422178
a) insulin dependent
b) non-insulin dependent
c) both a & b
d) none of the above
4) Diabetics are unable to
metabolise blood:
12422179
a) Urea b)
Protei
c) Sugar d) fat
5) Glucokinase enzyme usually
converts glucose to glucose -6 -
phosphate in:
12422180
a) liver b)
pancreas 22(175)
c) stomach d) buccal cavity
6) T -cells of immune system
attack pancreas and destroy insulin
producing:
12422181
a) a -cells b) β
-cells
c) α-cells d) γ
–cells
7) The insulin gene is located on
short arm of chromosome: 12422182
a) 1 b) 11
c) 2 d) 22
8) Type I diabetes arises due to
deficiency of pancreatic hormone: 12422183
a) glucagon
b) somatotrophin
c) insulin
d) vasopressin
9) Type I diabetes is also called
Juvenile diabetes because it
usually occurs in early age
before: 12422184
a)
20 b)
30
c)
40 d)
60
10) Diabetes mellitus type II
accounts for of all diabetic
patients: 12422185
a)
10% b)
99%
c)
80% d)
90%
Short questions
1) Alleles, genes, gene pool
Q.1: What is the difference between
phenotype and genotype?(Board 2014) 12422186
Q.2: Define population? 12422187
Q.3: What is the product rule? 12422188
Q.4: Differentiate between Gene and genome. 12422189
Q.5: What are genes and alleles?
(Board 2016) 12422190
Q.6: What is a gene pool? (Board 2014)
12422191
2) Mendel and Mendel’s Laws
Q.1: How and why did Mendelian factors
behave like chromosomes? 12422192
Q.2: Differentiate between monohybrid and
dihybrid. (Board 2014) 12422193
Q.3: Differentiate between homozygous and
heterozygous. (Board 2014,16) 12422194
Q.4: Differentiate between dominant and
recessive trait. 12422195
Q.5:Was pea a lucky choice for Mendel? What
would have happened if he had studied an eighth character? 12422196
Q.6: What is a test cross? Why did Mendel
devise this cross? OR (Board 2013, 14) 12422197
What is a test cross? What
its significance?
12422198
Q.7: What would happen if alleles of a pair
do not segregate at meiosis? How would it affect the purity of gamete? 12422199
Q.8: If the alleles do not assort
independently, which type of combination is missing in the pregeny? 12422200
Q.9: Why each gamete had equal chance of
getting one or the other allele of a pair?
12422201
Q.10: Does the dominant allele modify the
determinative nature of Its recessive partner? What sort of relationship do they have? 12422202
Q.11: Which type of traits can assort
independently? 12422203
Q.12: Which types of genes do not obey law
of independent assortment? 12422204
Q.13: Why Mendel is famous for? 12422205
Q.14: Define Mendel's law of segregation
(law of purity of gametes). 12422206
Q.15: What is Punnett square? 12422207
Q.16:Define Mendel's Law of Independent
Assortment or simultaneous inheritance of two traits. 12422208
Q.17: Name different types of dominance
relations among alleles? 12422209
Q.18: Differentiate between Incomplete
dominance and codominance. 12422210
Q.19: What is over dominance? 12422211
3) Multiple Alleles ,
Erythroblastosis
Q.1: What are multiple alleles? Give one example. (Board 2015) 12422212
Q.2: Differentiate between Allele and
multiple allele. (Board 2014) 12422213
Q. 3: Why does the blood group phenotype of
a person remain constant through out life? 12422214
Q.4: What is a universal blood donor?
12422215
Q.5: How can ABO -incompatibility protects
the baby against Rh - incompatibility?
12422216
Q.6: Who discovered ABO blood group? 12422217
Q.7: Why Bernstein is famous for? 12422218
Q.8: What antigen is produced by allele lA,
IB and i? 12422219
Q.9: Why blood group phenotype never
changes? 12422220
Q.10: Name the anti-bodies found in the
blood serum of phenotype i, A, B, AB and O. 12422221
Q.11: What is antiserum? 12422222
Q.12: Why phenotype O is called universal
donor? 12422223
Q.13: Why AB blood group individuals are
called universal recipients? 12422224
Q.14: What is Rh Blood group system? 12422225
Q.15: What is Erythroblastosis foetalis
(Maternal -foetal Rh incompatibility)?
12422226
Q.16: Why erythroblastosis foetalis is
called so? 12422227
Q.17: What is Bombay phenotype?
(Board 2016)
12422228
4) Epistasis, pleiotropy
Q.1: What is epistasis?(Board
-2010) 12422229
Q.2: Differentiate between Dominance and
epistasis. 12422230
Q.3: Define pleiotropy. (Board 2010, 14)
12422231
Q.4: What does happen when a cat gets W
allele? 12422232
5) Polygenes
Q.1: What are polygenetic traits? 12422233
Q.2: Differentiate Continuous and
discontinuous variations. 12422234
Q.3: What is multifactorial inheritance? 12422235
Q.4: What are two aspects of phenotypic
expression of traits? 12422236
Q.5: What environmental factors affect the
grain colour in wheat? 12422237
Q.6: What do you know about the tallness
and shortness in humans? 12422238
6) LiNkage and Crossing Over
Q.1: What is gene linkage? 12422239
Q.2: Define crossing over. What is its
importance? (Board 2013) 12422240
Q.3: What is Cross over or recombinant
frequency? (Board
-2010) 12422241
Q.4: How can linked genes be separated from
each other? 12422242
Q.5: What is Linkage group? 12422243
Q.6: How can you calculate the
recombination frequency between two linked genes? (Board 2015) 12422244
Q.7: Differentiate between linkage and
linkage group. (Board 2015) 12422245
7) Sex Determination
Q.1: Name the organism that lack sex
chromosomes? 12422246
Q.2: How many pairs of sex and autosome
chromosomes are present in humans?
12422247
Q.3: Which animals show XX-XY type or ZZ
-ZW type of sex determination?12422248
Q.4: Compare XXY individuals in humans and Drosophila. 12422249
Q.5: Differentiate between monoecious and
dioecious plants. 12422250
Q.6: Why Correns is famous for? 12422251
Q.7: Why T.H. Morgan is famous for?
12422252
Q.8: Why a single recessive allele on X
chromosome can express itself in males?
12422253
Q.9: Differentiate between Wild type and
mutant. 12422254
Q.10: What do you know about chromosome
number of Grasshopper?
12422255
8) Sex Linkage in Drosophila
Q.1: How sexual dimorphism is exhibited in Drosophila?
12422256
Q.2: Differentiate between homogametic and
heterogametic individuals. 12422257
Q.3: What is a nullo gamete? 12422258
Q.4: What is X:A ratio for females and
males? 12422259
Q.5: What are Sex-linked and X-linked
traits? 12422260
Q.6: What is the Pattern of sex-linked
inheritance? 12422261
Q.7: What are X -and Y-linked genes?
12422262
9) Sex -Linkage in Man
Q.1: What are X -linked dominant and
recessive traits? 12422264
Q.2: Differentiate between Autosome and sex
chromosome. 12422265
Q.3: What is the pattern of X -linked
dominant inheritance? 12422266
Q.4: What is the pattern of Y -Linked
inheritance? 12422267
Q.5: What are sex limited traits? OR
12422268
Explain
sex-limited traits? (Board 2013, 15)
12422269
Q.6: What are sex-influenced traits?
12422270
Q.7: A man is 45 years old and bald. His
wife also has pattern baldness. What is the risk that their son will lose his hair?
12422271
Q.8: What are Y-linked genes? 12422272
Q.9: Differentiate between Sex limited and
sex influenced trait. 12422273
Q.10: What is SRY? 12422274
Q.11: Explain testicular feminization
syndrome. (Board 2015)12422275
A) Haemophilia
Q.1: What is haemophilia? 12422276
Q.2: What are different types of
haemophilia? 12422277
Q.3: What is the percentage of different
type’s of haemophilia? 12422278
Q.4: Which type of haemophilia affect men
more than women? 12422279
Q.5: When a woman can suffer from
haemophilia A or B? 12422280
Q.6: What is the pattern of inheritance of
haemophilia? 12422281
B) Colour blindness
Q.1: Which one is true colour blindness:
monochromacy or dichromacy? 12422282
Q.2: What are opsins? 12422283
Q.94: What is a dichromat? What are
different types of dichromatic blindness? 12422284
Q.3: Differentiate between protanopia,
deuteranopia and tritanopia. 12422285
Q.4: What are protanomalous and
deuteranomalous? 12422286
Q.5: What is Monochromacy? 12422287
Q.6: What is Blue cone monochromacy? 12422288
Q.7: Why red-green colour blindness is more
common in men than women?
12422289
10) Diabetes mellitus
Q.1: What is MODY? (Board 2014, 15,16)
12422290
Q.2: Can a child have more intelligence (IQ
score) than his parents. 12422291
Q.3: What is Locus? 12422292
Q.4: What are Alleles? 12422293
Q.5: What is Type I diabetes or IDDM or
insulin dependent diabetes mellitus?
12422294
Q.6: What is Type II diabetes or NIDDM or
non insulin dependent, diabetes mellitus? 12422295
Q.7: What is Diabetes mellitus? 12422296
Q.8: What are the effects of diabetes?
12422297
|
Unit |
BIOTECHNOLOGY |
|
23 |
Multiple Choice Questions
EXERCISE
1. Which of these is a true
statement?
12423017
(a)
Both plasmid and viruses can serve as vectors.
(b)
Plasmids can carry recombinant DNA but viruses
cannot.
(c)
Vectors carry only the foreign gene into the
host cell.
(d)
Both a and d are correct.
2. Which of these is a benefit to
having insulin produced by
biotechnology?
a)
It just as
effective. 12423018
b)
It can be mass
produced
c)
It is non
allergic
d)
It is less
expensive
e)
All of these are
correct.
3. Restriction fragment length polymo- rphism
(RFLPs) 12423019
a)
Are achieved by using restriction enzymes
b)
Identify individuals genetically
c)
Are the basis for DNA finger prints
d)
Can be
subjected to gel electrophoresis
e)
All of these are correct
4. Which of these would you not expect to be a biotechnology product? 12423020
(a) Vaccine (b) Modified enzyme
(c) DNA probes (d) Protein hormones
(e) Steroid hormone
5. What is the benefit of using a
retrovirus as a vector in gene therapy? 12423021
a)
It is not able to enter cells.
b)
It incorporates the foreign gene into the host
chromosome
c)
It eliminates
a lot of unnecessary steps
d)
It prevents infection by other viruses
e)
Both b and d are correct.
6. Gel electrophoresis 12423022
a)
Cannot be used as nucleotides
b)
Measure the size of plasmids
c)
Tell whether viruses are infectious
d)
Measure the change and size of proteins and DNA
fragments.
e)
All of these are correct
7. Which of these are incorrectly
watched? 12423023
a)
Protoplast __ plant cell engineering
b)
RFLPS __
DNA finger printing
c)
DNA polymerase __ PCR
d)
DNA ligase __ mapping human chromosome
1.
(1)
BIOTECHNOLOGY, CLONING OF A GENE
1) The single stranded but
complementary ends of the two DNA
molecules are called: 12423024
a) Sticky ends b) Cohessive
ends
c) Adhesive ends d) Gummy ends
2) The DNA of bacterial viruses
for example lambda phage can also be
used as a:
12423025
a) Vector b) Transformer
c) Carrier d) Mover
3) The means by which recombinant
DNA is introduced into a host cell is
called:
12423026
a) Plasmid b) Carrier
c) Vector d)
Transporter
4) EcoR1 cuts double-stranded DNA
when it has this sequence of bases
(sticky ends) at the: 12423027
a) Cleavage site b) Flanking site
c) Breaking site d) Joining site
5) Commonly used restriction enzyme is:
12423028
a) EcoR4 b) EcoR3
c) EcoR2 d) EcoR1
6) Chromosomes are cut using
special enzymes known as: 12423029
a) Restriction exonucleases
b) Restriction endonucleases
c) Ligases
d) Polymerases
7) One common type of vector is a: 12423030
a) Chromosome b) Lysosome
c) Plasmid d)
Mitochondria
8) pBR
322 has antibiotic resistance genes for:
12423031
a) Tetracycline b) Ampicillin
c) Both a & b d) None
9) In 1970, Hamilton O. Smith, at
Johns Hopkins University,
isolated the first:
a) DNA polymerase 12423032
b) DNA ligase
c) Diastase
d) Restriction enzyme
10) Plasmids were discovered by investigators studying the sex life of the intestinal
bacterium called: 12423033
a) Pseudomonas
b) Hyphomicrobium
c) Eschrichia coli
d) Mycoplasma
11) Natural extra
chromosomal circular DNA molecules
in bacteria are: 12423034
a) Vectors b)
Plasmids
c) Plasminogen d) Plasmasol
12) The DNA
synthesized from mRNA , using reverse transcriptase is called:
a) Recombinant DNA 12423035
b) Complementary DNA
c) Chimaeric DNA
d) Hybrid DNA
13) A large number
of molecules or cells or organisms that
are identical to an original specimen
are said: 12423036
a) Duplicate b) Clone
c) Replica d)
Genetic copy
14 One of the
plasmids discovered earlier pSC 101 has
antibiotic resistance gene for: 12423037
a) Tetracycline
b) Streptomycin
c) Neomycin
d) Ampicillin
15) The gene of
choice can also be synthesized in the laboratory from messenger RNA, using reverse transcriptase.
This DNA molecule is called: 12423038
a) Complementary DNA
b) c DNA
c) rDNA
d) Both a & b
16) The gene of interest is joined
with the sticky ends produced
after cutting the plasmid with the
help of another special enzyme
known as: 12423039
a) DNA ligase
b) RNA ligase
c) DNA polymerase
d) DNA isomerase
17. The two different pieces of DNA joined together,
is called as: (Board 2015) 12423040
a) Dimeric DNA b) Chimaeric
DNA
c) Trimeric DNA d) Tetrameric DNA
a. (2) Genomic Library
1) A full set of genes of an
individual is called: 12423041
a) Genotype b) Genomic
library
c) Genome d)
Allelomorph
2) A collection of bacterial or
bacteriophage clones, each clone
containing a particular segment
of DNA from the source cell is: 12423042
a) Genome b) Genomic
library
c) Cloning d) Recombinant DNA
3) A probe is a single stranded
nucleotide sequence that will
hybridize (pair) into a certain
piece of: 12423043
a) DNA b) RNA
c) Amino acid d) Fatty acid
4) Location of probe is possible
because the probe is either
radioactive or: 12423044
a) Transmitter b) Radiater
c) Fluorescent d) Reflector
5) Genomic library is a
collection of bacterial or bacteriophage:
(Board
2014)12423045
a) Genotype b) Genome
c) Gene pool d) Clones
(3) The Polymerase Chain
Reaction
1) The process used to create
millions of copies of a single
gene or any specific piece of DNA
quickly in a test tube is:
a) VCR b)
PCR 12423046
c) TCR d) GCR
2) DNA polymerase used in PCR is extracted from the bacterium: 12423047
a)
Thermus terrestris
b)
Thermus indicus
c)
Thermus aquaticus
d)
Thermus botani
3) PCR
is used to diagnose: 12423048
a) Viral infections
b) Genetic disorders
c) Cancer
d) All of the above
4) PCR
takes its name from: 12423049
a) RNA polymerase
b) DNA polymerase
c) DNA ligase
d) Endonuclease
5) Commonly enzyme, Thermus
aquaticus, is also known as: 12423050
a) Taq polymerase
b) DNA polymerase
c) RNA polymerase
d) Taq ligase
6) The polymerase chain reaction
(PCR) was developed in 1983 by: 12423051
a) Kary B. Mullis
b) Gottlieb Haberlandt
c) Theodore M. Klein
d) J. Craig Venter
7) Thermus aquaticus is
an:
(Board 2016) 12423051
a) Fungus b) Protozon
c) Alga d) Bacterium
b.
c. (4) Analyzing
DNA or DNA Finger Printing
1) DNA
finger prints can also be used as:
a) Crime evidence 12423052
b) Forensic evidence
c) Litigation evidence
d) Offence evidence
2)
Very useful method in DNA finger printing is: 12423053
a) PCR b) Cloning
c) Genetic engineering d) Transmutation
3) The DNA from a single sperm is enough to identify a suspected: 12423054
a) Child b)
Women
c) Zygote d)
Rapist
(5) Gene
Sequencing
1) In DNA or gene sequencing, scientists create many copies of a single-stranded DNA fragment that will be used to synthesize a new: 12423055
a) RNA strand
b) ATP
c) NAD
d) DNA strand
2) DNA threads are chemically cut into pieces of different sizes in: 12423056
a) Maxam-Gilbert method
b) Sanger's method
c) Smith's method
d) Sanford's method
3) In order to separate DNA pieces of different sizes on gel, the method used is:
a) Maxam-Gilbert method 12423057
b) Sanger's method
c) Smith's method
d) Dideoxy method
4) Dideoxy ribonucleoside triphosphates are used to terminate into DNA synthesis at different sites in: 12423058
a) Maxam-Gilbert method
b) Sanger's method
c) Smith's method
d) Sanford's method
d. (6) THE HUMAN GENOME PROJECT
1) It is estimated that human
genome could take an encyclopaedia of
200 volumes, each with: 12423059
a) 10 pages b) 100 pages
c) 1000 pages d) 10000 pages
2) The entire human genome was published in: 12423060
a) 1901 b)
1902
c) 2001 d)
2002
3) There are three billion base
pairs in the:
a)
Bacterial genome 12423061
b) Yeast genome
c) Human genome
d) Monkey genome
4) A company which has now sequenced the entire genome was founded by: 12423062
a) Kary B. Mullis
b) Gottlieb Haberlandt
c) Theodore M. Klein
d) J. Craig Venter
5) Persons with what disease have
a unique site where a restriction
enzyme cuts the DNA during RFLP
formation? 12423063
a) Phenylketonuria
b) Huntington disease
c) Alzheimer’s disease
d) Parkinson’s disease
6) The base pairs in Human genome
are: (Board 2014) 12423064
a) Two billions
b) Three billions
c) Four billions
d) Five billions
(7) BIOTECHNOLOGY PRODUCTS
Transgenic bacteria
1) Today bacteria, plants and
animals are genetically engineered to produce:
a) Genetic products 12423065
b) Engineered products
c) Biotechnology products
d) Technical products
2) The products produced by
genetically engineered organisms
are called: 12423066
a) Genetic products
b) Engineered products
c) Biotechnology products
d) Technical products
3) Genetic engineering may
enhance the ability of bacteria
to extract: 12423067
a) Copper
b) Uranium
c) Gold
d) All of the above
4) Industry has found that
bacteria can be used as biofilters
to prevent airborne chemical
pollutants from being released into
the: 12423068
a) Atmosphere b)
Air
c) Soil d)
Water
5) Naturally engineered bacteria
do an even better job of cleaning up
beaches after:
12423069
a) Milk spills b) Oil
spills
c) Urine spills d) Alcohol
spills
6) Phenylalanine is an organic
chemical needed to make
aspartame the dipeptide sweetener better
known as: 12423070
a) Nutra sweetener
b) Dipeptide sweet
c) Nutra toxin
d) Nutrasweet
7) Some mining companies are
testing genetically engineered organisms
that have improved: 12423071
a) Rate of reproduction
b) Rate of mutation
c) Bio-fowling capabilities
d) Bioleaching capabilities
8) Recombinant DNA technology is
used to produce bacteria that
reproduce in large vats called: 12423072
a) Bioreactors
b) Biovats
c) Biovessels
d) Biotanks
(8) Transgenic Plants
1) A team of Japanese scientists are working on introducing the C4 photosynthetic cycle
into: 12423073
a) Rice b)
Wheat
c) Corn d)
Oat
2)
Antibody used for the treatment of genital herpes is obtained from:(Board 2015)12423074
a) Corn b)
Soya-bean
c) Rice d)
Wheat
3)
Cloning is a form of: 12423075
a) Sexual reproduction
b) Budding
c) Duplication
d) Asexual reproduction
4)
Foreign genes transferred to cotton,
corn and potato strains have made
these plants resistant to pests
because their cells now produce an
insect: 12423076
a) Anti-toxin b) Toxin
c) Poison d)
Venom
5) One type of
antibody made by corn can deliver
radioisotopes to: 12423077
a) Malign cells
b) Tumour cells
c) Lump cells
d) Protruding cells
6) Organisms that
have had a foreign gene inserted into
them are called: 12423078
a) Hermaphrodites
b) Polygynous
c) Transgenic organisms
d) Transmutated organisms
7) Plants are
being engineered to produce in their
seeds: 12423079
a) Human hormones
b) Clotting factors
c) Antibodies
d) All of the above
8) Soybeans have
been made resistant to a common: 12423080
a) Herbicide b) Fungicide
c) Pesticide d) Insecticide
9) A weed called
mouse-eared cress has been engineered
to produce in cell granules a biodegradable: 12423081
a) Plastic
b) Polyhydroxy-butyrate
c) Both a & b
d) Vinyl
10) Human hormones,
clotting factors and antibodies have
been produced by:
a) Transgenic algae 12423082
b) Transgenic plants
c) Transgenic fungi
d) Transgenic protozoa
e. (9) Transgenic Animals
1)
Antithrombin III, for preventing blood clots
during surgery, is currently being produced
by a herd of: 12423083
a) Cats
b) Cows
c) Dogs
d) Goats
2) The cells which cling to an egg after ovulation occurs are called: 12423084
a) Heap
b) Plethora
c) Conglomeration
d) Cumulus
3) Cystic fibrosis patients lack a gene that codes for trans-membrane carrier of the: 12423085
a) Chloride ion b) Sodium ion
c) Potassium ion d) Calcium ion
4) Urine is a preferable vehicle for a biotechnology product than: 12423086
a) Milk b)
Blood
c) Plasma d)
Tissue fluid
5) In 1997, scientists at the Roslin Institute in Scotland
announced that they had produced
a cloned sheep called: 12423087
a) Polly b)
Dolly
c) Jolly d)
Molly
(10) GENE
THERAPY
1) During coronary artery angioplasty, a balloon catheter is sometimes used to open
up a closed: (Board 2013) 12423088
a) Vein b)
Lacteal
c) Intestine d) Artery
2) The insertion of genetic material into human cells for the treatment of a disorder is: 12423089
a) Genetic drift
b) Gene psychoanalysis
c) Gene therapy
d) Gene rehabiliation
3) Genes that code for
therapeutic, and diagnostic proteins are
incorporated into the animal's
DNA, and the proteins appear in the animal's: 12423090
a) Urine b)
Blood
c) Sweat d) Milk
4) Children in the
severe combined immunodeficiency
syndrome (SCID) are treated by: (Board 2014)
12423091
a) Chemotherapy
b) Ex-Vivo gene therapy
c) In-vivo gene therapy
d) Antibiotics
5) Patients are
directly given normal genes in one
way or the other in: 12423092
a) Chemotherapy
b) Ex-Vivo gene therapy
c) In-vivo gene therapy
d) Antibiotics
6) Patients of
cystic fibrosis often die due to numerous
infections of the: 12423093
a) Reproductive tract
b) Excretory duct
c) Digestive tract
d) Respiratory tract
7) The children with SCID lack an enzyme:
a) Adenosine deaminase 12423094
b) ADA
c) Both a & b
d) Arginine deaminase
8) The familial
hypercholesterolemia is a condition that
develops when liver cells lack a receptor
for removing cholesterol from the: 12423095
a) Milk b)
Blood
c) Urine d)
Plasma
9) To treat haemophilia, patients
could get regular doses of cells
that contain normal:
a) Bleeding-factor genes 12423096 b)
Clotting-factor genes
c) Releasing-factor genes
d) Factor IX genes
10) To cure Parkinson's disease
dopamine- producing cells could be
grafted directly into the: 12423097
a) Brain b)
Bone marrow
c) Blood d)
Liver
(11) TISSUE CULTURE
1) A
callus is an undifferentiated group of:
12423098
a) Cells
b) Tissues
c) Organs
d) Systems
2) Cell suspension cultures of Cinchona ledgeriana produce: 12423099
a) Quinine
b) Digitoxin
c) Polludrin
d) Anti-toxin
3) Cell suspension
cultures of Digitalis lanata
produce: (Board
2013) 12423100
a) Quinine b)
Digitoxin
c) Polludrin d) Anti-toxin
4) Clonal plants are those all of which have the same: 12423101
a) Habits b)
Habitats
c) Traits d)
Shapes
5) German botanist
Gottlieb Haberlandt said in 1902 that
plant cells are: 12423102
a) Totipotent
b) Potent
c) Totipersausive
d) Totistrong
6) In 1958 Cornell botanist F .C.
Steward grew a complete carrot plant
from a tiny piece of: (Board 2014) 12423103
a) Xylem b)
Phloem
c) Cortex d) Endodermis
7) An other
advantage of meristem culture is that
meristem is: 12423104
a) Virus free b) Bacteria
free
c) Fungi free d) Pathogen
free
8) It is possible
to produce millions of somatic
embryos at once in large tanks called: 12423105
a) Biofilters b) Biomembrane
c) Bioreactors d) Biovat
9) One favourite
method to accomplish micro-propagation
is by: 12423106
a) Meriroot culture b) Organ culture
c) Tissue culture
d) Meristem culture
10) Plant cells that have had the
cell wall removed are called: 12423107
a) Protoplasts b) Cytotoplast
c) Protoplastus d) Protoplastos
11) Since a whole plant will grow
from a protoplast, it is necessary only to place the foreign gene into a: 12423108
a) Dead protoplast
b) Sleeping protoplast
c) Living protoplast
d) Weakened protoplast
12) If each cell has the full
genetic potential of the organism then it is called: 12423109
a) Genopotent b) Potent
c) Somaclonal d) Totipotent
13) The growth of a tissue in an
artificial liquid culture medium is: 12423110
a) Hankie culture
b) Bandanna culture
c) Callus culture
d) Tissue culture
14) Enzymes are used to digest the
cell walls of a small piece of tissue, from a leaf, and the result is naked
cells without walls, called: 12423111
a) Protoplasm
b) Protoplasts
c) Cytoplast
d) Tonoplast
(12) GENITIC ENGENEERING OF
PLANTS
1) In 1987, John C Sanford and
Theodore M. Klein of Cornell University developed another method of introducing DNA into a plant tissue culture 12423112
a) Callus b) Corn
c) stump d) Root
2) People with insulin dependent
diabetes mellitus received the
insulin they needed for
survival from: 12423113
a) Plants
b) Fungi
c) Dead animals
d) Protists
3) Adult transgenic tobacco
plants glowed when sprayed with the
substrate 12423114
a) Luciferon b) Luciferin
c) Luciferol d) Luciferase
4) An enzyme that can be used to
treat a human lysosome storage
disease is:
a) β galactosidase 12423115
b) α galactosidase
c) Glucosidase
d) Invertase
5) Corn and wheat protoplasts produce:
12423116
a) Fertile plants b) Infertile plants
c) Both a & b d) None of the above
6) Foreign DNA is inserted into
the plasmid of the bacterium,
Agrobacterium, which normally infects
the: 12423117
a) Animal cells b) Plant cells.
c) Both a & b d) Fungal cell
7) The crossing of different
varieties of plants or even species is: 12423118
a) Combination b) Mixing
c) Hybridization d) Mongrel
8) Sanford and Klein constructed
a device, called the particle gun
that bombards a callus with: 12423119
a) RNA b) DNA
c) NAD d) ATP
9) Aspartane is a: (Board 2013) 12423120
a) Dipetide b) Tripeptide
c) Pentapetide d) Polypeptide
(13) Agriculture Plants with
Improved Traits
1) Arabidopsis is: 12423121
a) Heat-resistant
b) Water-absorbent
c) Totipotent
d) Salt -tolerant
2) Today crop production is
limited by effects of salinization about: 12423122
a) 70 % b) 65%
c) 50% d) 28%
3) Cotton, corn, potato and
soybean plants have been engineered
to be resistant to either: 12423123
a) Insect predation or
germicides
b) Insect predation or
fungicides
c) Insect predation or
herbicides
d) Insect predation or
pesticides
4) In 1999, transgenic crops were
planted world wide on more than: 12423124
a) 10 million areas
b) 20 million areas
c) 70 million areas
d) 700 million areas
Short questions
Q.1 How and why transgenic animals that
secrete a product are often cloned?
12423125
Q.2. Explain two primary goals of human
genome project .What are possible benefits of the projects? (Board 2016)12423126
Q.3. Explain and give example of ex-vivo
and in-vivo gene therapies in humans?
12423127
Q.4:
What is complementary DNA?
12423128
Q.5:
What are Palindromic sequences? (Board
2013,15,16) 12423129
Q.6:
What are Sticky ends? 12423130
Q.7:
What is vector? 124231331
Q.8:
What are plasmids? 12423132
Q.9:
What is the use of DNA ligase?
12423133
Q.10: What is recombinant DNA or chimaeric
DNA? (Board 2015) 12423134
Q.11: What is clone? (Board -2010) 12423135
Q.12: What is a genome and genomic library? (Board 2013,16) 12423136
Q.13: What is the use of genetically
engineered bacteria? 12423137
Q.14: What are the restriction enzymes? 12423138
Q.15: Why transgenic animals are cloned? 12423139
Q.16: Which enzyme is Taq polymerase? 12423140
Q.17: How transgenic animals are developed? 12423141
Q.18: From which animal, antithrombin III
is produced? 12423142
Q.19: How many methods are used for gene
therapy? Name them. 12423143
Q.20: How transgenic animals that secrete a
product are often craned? 12423144
Q.21: What is Dolly? 12423145
Q.22: When recombinant DNA technology is
used and when PCR? 12423146
Q.23: How genes can be isolated from
chromosomes? (Board 2016) 12423147
Q.22: What is a probe? Give its uses.
(Board 2014) 12423148
Q.23: What is the polymerase chain reaction
or PCR? 12423149
Q.24: Where from PCR took its name? Why is
called chain reaction? 12423150
Q.25: What is DNA Finger printing?
12423151
Q.26: What is the use of finger print? (Board 2013) 12423152
Q.27: What is gel electrophoresis? 12423153
Q.28: What is gene sequencing?
(Board-2010) 12423154
Q.29: What are various methods of gene or
DNA sequencing? 12423155
Q.30: What is Sanger's method? 12423156
Q.31: What is Maxam-Gilbert method? 12423157
Q.32: What is the use of dideoxy method? 12423158
Q.33: Name different organisms and
organelles whose genomes have been sequenced? 12423159
Q.34: What is the purpose of primary goal
of Human Genome Project? 12423160
Q.35: What are biotechnology products? 12423161
Q.36: What are transgenic organisms?
12423162
Q.37: What are bioreactors? (Board 2014)
12423163
Q.38: Name some biotechnology products
produced by bacteria. 12423164
Q.39: What are Biofilters? 12423165
Q.40: What are protoplasts? 12423166
Q.41: Give two advantages of transgenic plants. 12423167
Q.42: Give two advantages of transgenic
animals. 12423168
Q.43: Define gene therapy.(Board 2014) 12423169
Q.44: What is Ex-vivo gene therapy? (Board
-2010) 12423170
Q.45: What is the method of ex-vivo gene
therapy? (Board
-2010) 12423171
Q.46: What is in-vivo gene therapy? (Board -2010) 12423172
Q.47: What is cell suspension culture,
technique? 12423173
Q.48: Define hybridization. What was its
use? 12423174
Q.49: What is luciferase and luciferin?
12423175
Q.50: What is Agrobacterium? 12423176
Q.51: What is particle gun? 12423177
Q.52: Name some plants which have been made
resistant to insect predation and herbicides. 12423178
Q.53: What is Arabidopsis? 12423179
Q.54: Why a team of Japanese scientists are
working on introducing the C4 photosynthetic cycle
into rice? 12423180
Q.55:What is familial
hypercholester-olemia? 12423181
Q.56: What is Cystic fibrosis? 12423182
Q.57: How gene therapy has been used for
the treatment of cancer? 12423183
Q.58: How gene therapy has been used for
the treatment of coronary artery angioplasty? 12423184
Q.59: What is tissue culture? 12423185
Q.60: Plant cells are said to be totipotent.
What do you mean by this? 12423186
Q.61: What is Micro-propagation? 12423187
Q.62: What is Meristem culture? 12423188
Q.63: What are clonal plants? 12423189
Q.64: What are somaclonal variations? 12423190
Q.65: What is Anther culture technique? 12423191
Q.66: What are transgenic plants?
(Board 2015) 12423192
Q.67: What is totipotent?(Board 2014) 12423193
Q.68: Differentiate between pSC 101 and pBR
322. (Board 2014) 12423194
|
Unit |
EVOLUTION |
|
24 |
Multiple Choice Questions
1. The gill pouches of mammals and birds embryos are 12424013
a) support for "ontogeny
recapitulates phylogeny"
b) homologous structures
c) used by the embryos to breath
d) evidence for the degeneration of
unused body parts
2. Darwin's theory, as presented in The Origin of Species, mainly concerned
a) how new species arise 12424014
b) the origin of life
c) how adaptations evolve
d) how extinctions occur
(e) the genetics of evolution
3. The smallest biological unit that can evolve over time is 12424015
a) a particular cell
b) an individual organism
d) a species
c) a population
e) an ecosystem
4. A gene pool consists of 12424016
a) all the alleles exposed to natural selection
b) the total of all
alleles present in a population
c) the entire genome of a reproducing individual
d) the frequencies of the alleles for a
gene locus within a population
(e) all the gametes in a population
5. In a population with two alleles for a particular locus, B and b,
the allele frequency of B is 0.7. What would be the frequency of heterozygote
if the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? 12424017
a) 0.7 b)
0.42
c) 0.49 d)
0.09
(e) 0.21
6. In a population that is in Hardy- Weinberg
equilibrium 16% of the individuals show the recessive trait. What
is the frequency of dominant allele in the population? 12424018
a) 0.84 b)
0.36
c) 0.6 d)
0.4
(e) 0.48
7. Selection acts directly on 12424019
a) phenotype
b) genotype
c) the entire genome
d) each allele
(e) the entire gene pool
Evolution
1) Enough protective ozone had built up to make lift on land possible about million years ago: 12424020
a) 420 b)
380
c) 250 d)
140
2). According to one of the speculations life may have begun deep in the oceans, in underwater hot springs called hydrothermal: 12424021
a) Apertures b) Gaps
c) Vents d)
Outlets
3). Alfred Wallace developed a theory of natural selection essentially identical
to:
12424022
a) Linnaeus's b) Darwin's
c) Lamarck's d) Francis's
4). All vertebrate embryos go through a stage in which they have gill pouches on the sides of their: 12424023
a) Heads b)
Thorax
c) Abdomen d) Throats
5). Among the birds Darwin collected 13 types of: 12424024
a) Finches b)
Robins
c) Ferrets d) Pterodactyls
6). Among the scientists who believed in divine creation was: 12424025
a) Charles Darwin
b) Alfred Wallace
c) Carolus Linnaeus
c) J. B. Lamarck
7). An example of natural selection in action is the evolution of antibiotic resistance
in:
12424026
a) Man b)
Fungi
c) Bacteria c) Viruses
8). An important turning point for evolutionary theory was the birth of:
a) Population ecology 12424027
b) Population genetics
c) Demography
d) Biometry
9). Archaebacteria tolerate temperatures up to: (Board
2014,15,16) 12424028
a) 10 °C b)
40 °C
c) 67°C d)
120°C
10). Darwin believed in unity in life, with all organisms related through descent from some common ancestor that lived in the remote: 12424029
a) Past b)
Present
c) Future d)
All of the above
11). Darwin proposed a mechanism for evolution, which he termed: 12424030
a) Artificial selection
b) Natural selection
c) Both a & b
d) None
12). Darwin wrote a long essay on the origin of species and natural selection in:
(Board 2014) 12424031
a) 1858 b)
1809
c) 1811 d)
1844
13). Who was in charge of invertebrate collection at the National History Museum in Paris? 12424032
a) Linnaeus b) Lamarck
c) Wallance d)
Lyell
14). Who was famous for his essay published on the Principle of population"? 12424033
a) Mendel b)
Malthus
c) Cuvier d)
Lyell
15). Acquired characteristic of an individual cannot be: (Board 2014) 12424034
a) Inherited b) Lost
c) Flourished d) Mutated
16). In the eighteenth century organisms were
classified by: 12424035
a)
Charles Darwin b) Alfred
Wallace
c)
Carolus Linnaeus d) J. B. Lamarck
17). Evolutionary
change is based mainly on the interactions between populations of organisms and
their: 12424036
a)
Enemies b)
Habitats
c)
Mates d)
Environments
18). The word evolution cannot be separated from the name of: 12424037
a)
Charles Darwin b) Alfred Wallace
c)
Carolus Linnaeus d) J. B. Lamarck
19). The idea of endosymbiont hypothesis was first proposed by: 12424036
a) Lamarck b)
Schwartz
c) Wallace d)
Lynn Margulis
20). The first photosynthetic organisms probably used hydrogen sulphide as a source of hydrogen for reducing carbon dioxide to: 12424039
a) Proteins b) Fats
c) Sugars
d) All
of the above
21). Some amoeboflagellates ingested cyanobacteria and led to the development of: 12424040
a) Mitochondria b) Golgi apparatus
c) Chloroplasts d) Vacuoles
22). Natural selection Occurs through an interaction between the environment and the variability inherent in any: 12424041
a) Individual b) Species
c) Population d) Community
23). Natural selection can amplify or diminish only those variations that
are:
12424042
a) Non-heritable b) Heritable
c) Both a & b d) None of the above
24). The parts of the body used extensively to cope with the environment become larger and stronger, while those that are not
used deteriorate was argued by 12424043
a) Charles Darwin b)
Alfred Wallace
c) Carolus Linnaeus d)
J. B. Lamarck
25). Jean Baptiste Lamarck published his theory of
evolution in: 12424044
a) 1757 b)
1809
c) 1859 d)
1945
26). Flagella
may have arisen through the ingestion
of prokaryotes similar to spiral- shaped
bacteria called: 12424045
a) Spirochetes b) Vibrio
c) Clostridium d) Salmonella
27). Evolutionists believed in the theory of:
a) Artificial selection 12424046
b) Natural selection
c) Lamarckism
d) Catastrophism
28). Eukaryotes are thought to have first appeared about billion years ago' 12424047
a) 1.2 b)
1.3
c) 1.4 d)
1.5
29). According to Darwin the history of life is like a: 12424048
a) Dream b)
Play
c) Hierarchy d) Tree
Evidences of evolution
30). Emigration and immigration of members of a population cause disturbance in the:
(Board2007) 12424049
a)
Genetic drift b)
Genotype
c)
Gene pool d)
Gene tarn
31). Prokaryotes are the ancestors of all life as evident from: 12424050
a)
Biochemistry b) Cell
biology
c)
Molecular biology d) All of the
above
32). The
processes that have transformed life on
earth from its earliest forms to the vast diversity
that is 12424051
a)
Evolution b)
Emigration
c)
Immigration d)
Inheritance
33). Evolutionary relationships among species
are reflected in their: 12424052
a)
DNA and proteins
b)
Genes and gene products
c)
Both a & b
d)
None
34). In
man the vestigial organs are: 12424053
a) Ear muscles
b) Nictitating membrane
c) Coccyx
d) All of the above
35). It was the geographical distribution of species that first suggested the idea
of evolution to: 12424054
a) Charles Darwin
b) Alfred Wallace
c) Carolus Linnaeus
d) J. B. Lamarck
36). Similarity in characteristics resulting from common known as: 12424055
a) Analogy b)
Homology
c) Topology d) Apology
37). The succession of fossil forms a strong evidence in favour of: 12424056
a)
Evolution b)
mutation
c)
genetic drift d)
demography
38). The ultimate source of all changes is:
12424057
a)
Evolution b)
Mutation
c)
Genetic drift d)
Migration
39). Vermiform appendix in carnivores and man is: 12424058
a)
Developed organ
b)
Vestigial organ
c)
Rudimentary organ
d)
Imperfect organ
40) Armadillos, the armoured mammals live only in the: (Board 2013) 12424059
a)
Africa b)
America
c)
Europe d)
Asia
41). The gill pouches develop into the Eustachian tubules that connect the middle ear with the: 12424060
a)
Throat b)
Neck
c)
Nose d)
Larynx
42). A respiratory protein found in all aerobic species is: (Board 2013) 12424061
a)
Cytochrome a
b)
Cytochrome b
c)
Cytochrome c
d)
Cytochrome d
43) Biogeography was the geographical distribution of: 12424062
a)
Species b)
Phyla
c)
Classes d)
Genera
44). The flower parts of a flowering plant are: 12424063
a)
Analogous
b)
Homologous
c)
Heterozygous
d)
Homozygous
Frequencies
45). Endangered species of plants have been recorded to more than: 12424064
a) 200 b)
300
c) 400 d)
500
46). Gene pool consists of all alleles at all gene loci in all individuals of the: 12424065
a)
Family b) Clan
c)
Population d)
Community
47). The change in frequency of alleles at a locus that occurs by chance is: 12424066
a)
Gene pool b) Mutation
c)
Genetic waft d) Genetic
drift
48). In certain areas, such as Ecuador, forest coverage has been reduced by: 12424067
a)
50% b) 67%
c)
78% d) 95%
49). The most common form that does not alter allele frequency, but lessens the
proportion of heterozygote individuals
is:
a)
Inbreeding 12424068
b)
Crossbreeding
c)
Random breeding
d)
Breeding
50). A group of inter-breeding individuals belonging to a particular species and sharing a common geographic area is:
(Board
2016) 12424069
a)
Population b) Community
c)
Clan d) Family
51). The total aggregate of genes in a population at anyone time is called the population's gene: 12424070
a)
Puddle b)
Lake
c)
Pool d)
Pond
52). The most threatened areas on the earth, have been reduced to 44% of their original extent are: 12424071
a)
Tropical rain forests
b)
Temperate rain forests
c)
Carboniferous forests
d)
Deciduous rain forests
53). If all members of a population are homozygous for the same allele, that allele is said to be: 12424072
a)
Multiple allele b) Jumping
gene
c)
Fixed in the gene d) Perfect gene
54). Hardy-Weinberg theorem, describes the frequencies of genotypes of non- evolving: 12424073
a)
Family b)
Species
c)
Population d)
Community
55). A
general formula, called the Hard-Weinberg equation is used for calculating the
frequencies of alleles and genotypes in popu1ations at: 12424074
a)
Equilibrium b)
Balance
c)
Stability d)
Poise
56). A localized group of individuals belonging to the same species is called:
12424075
a)
Community b)
Population
c)
Clan d)
Both b & c
57). A group of individuals that have the potential to interbreed in nature is called:
a)
Population 12424076
b)
Community
c)
Species
d)
Clan
58). A species which is in imminent danger of extinction throughout its range is called: 12424077
a)
Scarce species
b)
Threatened species
c)
Rare species
d)
Endangered species
59). A species is likely to become endangered in the near future is: 12424078
a)
Scarce species
b)
Threatened species
c)
Rare species
d)
Endangered species
60. For a diploid species each locus is represented ______in the genome of an individual. 12424079
a)
Thrice b)
Twice
c)
Four time d)
one time
61. In Pakistan among
the animals declared extinct is: (Board 2015) 12424080
a) White headed duck
b) Marbled teal
c) Crocodile
d) Houbara bustard
Short
questions
1.
Which idea is known as endosymbiont
hypothesis? (Board 2007)
12424081
2.
Briefly
explain the hypothesis which describes the evolution of eukaryotic cells from
prokaryote cells? 12424082
3.
What was the second idea of Lamarck called? 12424083
4.
What is the important turning point for
evolutionary theory?
(Board -2007) 12424084
5.
How natural selection occurs? (Board
2007) 12424085
6.
What puzzled the Darwin during his expedition? 12424086
7.
What was the source of hydrogen for reducing
CO2 in first photosynthetic organisms? 12424087
8.
What was the statement or theorem of
Hardy-Weinberg? 12424088
9.
Which mating is called a non-random mating? 12424089
10.
On what evidences Darwin's theory of
evolution was mainly based? 12424090
11.
Who was Darwin's predecessor who developed a
comprehensive model that attempted to explain how life evolves?
12424091
12.
What is Spirochete? 12424092
13.
Define Biogeography. 12424093
14.
What are Fossils? (Board 2014) 12424094
15.
Define Embryology. 12424095
16.
What is Molecular Biology? 12424096
17.
What does evolution refer? 12424097
18.
What is the Concept of special creation? (Board 2013) 12424098
19.
What is the Concept of Evolution? (Borad 2007) 12424099
20.
What did Lamarck said about the use and
disuse of organs? 12424100
21.
What Darwin said about Finches of Galapagos? 12424101
22.
What was Darwin's idea of Origin of Species? 12424102
23.
What was the contribution of Wallace in the
development of theory of natural selection? 12424103
24.
Define the theory of natural selection. (Board
-2007) 12424104
25.
What is Neo-Darwinism? (Board
-2006,15)
12424105
26.
What does indicate that prokaryotes are
ancestors of all life? 12424106
27.
What are Homologous structures? 12424107
28.
What are vestigial organs? (Board
2010, 14,16) 12424108
29.
Name some vestigial structures in man. (Board
-2010) 12424109
30.
Differentiate between homologous and
analogous organs.(Board 2013,14,15) 12424110
31.
Differentiate between natural selection and
artificial selection.
(Board 2015)12424111
32.
What is population? 12424112
33.
Define Species. 12424113
34.
What is Gene pool? (GB-2006) 12424114
35.
Define the Hardy-Weinberg theorem. (Board
-2007, 08, 13, 15,16) 12424115
36.
What
is Hardy-Weinberg equation used for? (Board 2013) 12424116
37.
What factors affect the gene frequency? 12424117
38.
Differentiate between endangered and
threatened species. 12424118
39.
What are hydrothermal vents? (Board
-2006) 12424119
40.
Which animals are declared extinct in
Pakistan? (Board
-2006,14,16) 12424120
41.
Which animals are near to extinction in
Pakistan? 12424121
42.
What is Genetic drift?
(Board-2013,
16) 12424122
43.
How are evolutionary relationships reflected
in DNA and proteins? 12424123
44.
Give the name of four factors effecting gene
frequency. (Board
2013) 12424124
|
Unit |
ECOSYSTEM |
|
25 |
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Community is a group
of: 12425012
a) Human beings living in a country b)
Ecosystems of different areas
c) Populations
of different organisms living in the same area
d)
Biomes of the world
2. A community and its
interaction with its environment
is called as: 12425013
a)
Biosphere b)
Habitat
c) Population d) Ecosystem
3. All living organisms
of the planet earth collectively constitute: 12425014
a)
Atmosphere b) Lithosphere
c)
Hydrosphere d) Biosphere
4. A specific locality with particular set of tolerable
environmental conditions, where organisms live is known as: 12425015
a) Habitat b) Biome
c) Ecosphere d)
Ecosystem
5. The term ecology was
coined in 1866 by Ernst Haeckel who was a zoologist
of:
12425016
a) England
b) America
c) France d) Germany
6. The study of
relationship of an organism to its environment is known as: 12425017
a) Biology b)
Ecology
c) Zoology d)
Mycology
7. Population consists of: 12425018
a) Organisms of different species b) Organisms of the same species
c) Organisms of the same habits
d) Organisms of different habits
8. The proper functioning of an ecosystem depends on: 12425019
a) Its
producers and consumers
b) Its abiotic and biotic components
c) Its abiotic components
d) Its biotic components
9. The term niche
was first proposed in 1917 by
Joseph Grinnell, an American: 12425020
a) Embryologist b)
Ecologist
c) Ornithologist d)
Physiologist
10.. The study of the relationship of different populations of a community to the environment
is called: 12425021
a) Autecology b)
Phycology
c) Synecology d)
Microbiology
11. The biotic components
of the ecosystem are the: 12425022
a) Producers
b) Consumers
c)
Producers, consumers and
the
decomposers
d) Decomposers
12. The examples of decomposers of the ecosystem are the: 12425023
a) Fungi
b)
Viruses
c) Bacteria
d)
Fungi and the bacteria
13. The whole of the world's land is called as:
12425024
a) Biosphere b)
Ecosphere
c) Lithosphere d)
Hygrosphere
14. The living organisms which can prepare their own food
are the: 12425025
a) Predators b) Parasites
c) Producers d)
Preys
15. The living organisms which
cannot prepare their own food but obtain
it ready-made from others are the: 12425026
a) Primary and secondary consumers b) Secondary and
tertiary consumers
c) Only primary consumers
d)
Consumers
16. A change in the community structure of an ecosystem
over a period of time is called: 12425027
a) Derosere b)
Climax
c) Biome
d) Succession
17. Primary plant succession
which starts in a pond ecosystem is termed as: (Board 2013) 12425028
a) Derosere b)
Xorosere
c)
Hydrosere d) Ecosphere
18. The transfer of food energy
from the green plants to
different trophic levels in an
ecosystem is called: 12425029
a)
Food way b) Food web
c)
Food link d) Food chain
19. The combination of
many food chains in an ecosystem is known as: 12425030
a)
Food net b)
Food path
c) Food
web d) Food link
20. In an ecosystem, the
second trophic level is constituted by the: 12425031
a) Producers
b) Tertiary consumers
c) Primary consumers
d)
Secondary consumers
21.The plants which can
withstand prolonged periods of
drought are called: 12425032
a) Hydrophytes
b) Hygrophytes
c) Mesophytes d) Xerophytes
22. The succulent plants
such as the cacti can store
water in their: 12425033
a) Sclarenchyma tissue
b) Parenchyma tissue
c) Collenchyma tissue
d)
Vascular tissue
23. The first stage of Xerosere primary plant succession is the: 12425034
a) Herbaceous stage
b)
Moss stage
c) Foliage lichen stage
d) Crustose lichen stage
24. Which one of the following is a foliage lichen? 12425035
a) Tortula b)
Dermatocarpon
c) Polytrichum d)
Rhizocarpon
25. An animal which captures
and readily kills living animals for its food is known as a: 12425036
a) Parasite b) Predator
c)
Scavenger d) Consumer
26. An association between organisms of different species in
which one partner gets benefit, and the other is harmed
is called as: 12425037
a) Parasitism b) Symbiosis
c) Mutualism d) Commensalism
27. An association between
organisms of different species in which one partner gets benefit while the other is neither
harmed nor benefited is known
as:12425038
a) Predation b)
Mutualism
c) Parasitism d) Commensalism
28. A symbiotic association
between a fungus and the roots of higher plants is known as: 12425039
a) Lichen
b) Phycorrhiza
c)
Mycorrhiza
d) Commensalism
29. Virtually
barren land is the final result of:
12425040
a)
Moderate grazing b)
Overgrazing
c) Undergrazing d) No
grazing
30. Moderate
grazing is very helpful to maintain: 12425041
a) Desert ecosystem
b)
Grassland ecosystem
c) Forest ecosystem
d)
Coniferous ecosystem
31. The
bacteria living in the root
nodules of the legume plants
serve to fix atmospheric: 12425042
a)
Hydrogen b) Oxygen
c)
Nitrogen d) Carbon
dioxide
32. Lichen is a symbiotic association
between a fungus and: 12425043
a) Roots of higher plants
b) An alga
c)
An angiosperm
d)
Diatom
33. Micronutrients are the elements required by the organisms in very small quantity such as: 12425044
a) Sulphur and
phosphorus
b) Carbon and calcium
c) Nitrogen and hydrogen
d) Iron and molybdenum
34. For the synthesis of proteins and nucleic acids, plants and animals
need: 12425045
a) Calcium b)
Hydrogen
c) Nitrogen d) Potassium
35. Similar
group of individuals who can
interbreed and produce organisms
of their own kind forms 12425046
a) Population b)
Community
c) Species d) Succession
36. Soil erosion, fire and water percolation down through the soil cause loss from its: 12425047
a)
Sulphates b) Carbonates
c) Nitrates d) Phosphates
37. The net primary production of an
ecosystem is its total: 12425048
a) Photosynthate b) Photosynthesis
c) Biomass d) Amount of energy
38. In the soil, ammonia is converted to nitrites by a bacterium called: 12425049
a)
Nitrobacter b) Nitrosomonas
c) Azobacter d)
Clostridium
39. Nitrosomonas
and Nitrobacter are:
a) Nitrifying bacteria 12425050
b) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
c) Ammonifying bacteria
d) Anaerobic bacteria
40. The oxidation of ammonia or ammonium ions by certain soil
bacteria is called:
a) Ammonification 12425051
b)
Nitrification
c) Assimilation
d)
None of the above
41 When living and non-living components interact to produce a stable system in which exchange of material with flow of energy takes place, it forms a /an
a)
Environment 12425052
b)
Ecosystem
c)
Stable Community
d)
Ecological Succession
42. Biome is a: (Board 2014) 12425053
a)
simple community
b)
Complex community
c)
Regional community
d)
Climax
43. The living organisms, which cannot prepare their own food but obtain ready- made food from others, are: 12425054
a) Primary and Secondary Consumers b) Secondary and Tertiary Consumers
c) Only Primary Consumers
d) Consumers
44 The
organisms which initiate an
ecological succession are called 12425055
a) Beginners b) Pioneers
c) Predators d)
Successors
45
Mutualism is a type of: 12425056
a) Commensalism
b) Symbiosis
c) Parasitism d) Predation
46. A
short food chain of two or three links support
a community: 12425057
a) Efficiently
b) More Efficiently
c) Inefficiently
d)
Less Efficiently
47. Succession
start on a dry soil is called:
(Board
2013) 12425058
a)
Hydrosere b) Xerosere
c) Derosere d) Dsertification
48. One of the following is an example of
predator-prey relationship. (Board 2015)
a) Fungus and alga 12425059
b) Flower
and insect
c) Fox and rabbit
d) Root
nodule bacteria
49. The bacteria in the root
nodules fix nitrogen and convert it into:
(Board 2015)
12425060
a) Nitrate b) Nittite
c) Amino acid d) Ammonia
50. Lichens are the example
of: (Board 2016)
12425060
a) Commensalism b) Mutualism
c) Predation d) Parasitism
51. In Xerosere Polytrichum and toxtula
represent (Board 2016) 12425060
a) Herbaceous
b) Moss stage
c) Foliage lichen stage
d) Crustose lichen stage
Short questions
Q.1.
What
is the term ecology derived from? 12425061
Q.2.
Define ecology. 12425062
Q.3.
Who used the term ecology for the first time and when? 12425063
Q.4.
Define environment. 12425064
Q.5.
What
is a population? 12425065
Q.6.
What is meant by a community in the
ecosystem? 12425066
Q.7.
Define the term ecosystem.
(Board
2016) 12425067
Q.8.
What is a biome? Quote examples. (Board 2014) 12425068
Q.9.
What constitutes planetary ecosystem? 12425069
Q.10. Name the three main ecological components of the abiotic world. 12425070
Q.11. Define biosphere (ecosphere). What are its limits? (Board 2014, 15,16) 12425071
Q.12. Define habitat. 12425072
Q.13. Define
ecological niche according to Charles Eton. 12425073
Q.14. Explain the ecological
Niche?
(Board 2013) 12425074
Q.15. Who
proposed the term niche in ecology and when?
(Board -2007) 12425075
Q.16. What does ornithology mean?
12425076
Q.17. Differentiate
between autecology and synecology. (Board 2013,14,16) 12425077
Q.18. Name the biotic (living) and the abiotic (nonliving)
components of the ecosystem. 12425078
Q.19. Define producers.(Board 2014) 12425079
Q.20. Differentiate between consumers and
decomposers. (Board
2014) 12425080
Q.21. Describe food chain.
(Board
06, 10,13,15) 12425081
Q.22. What is food web in an ecosystem? (Board 2006,10,13) 12425082
Q.23. What is phytoplankton? 12425083
Q.24. Name the
various possible trophic levels
(food links) in an ecosystem. 12425084
Q.25. Suggest alternative names for primary,
secondary and tertiary consumer animals. 12425085
Q.26. How
does food web help maintain stability of the ecosystem? 12425086
Q.27. What
is succession in ecology?
(Board
2014,16) 12425087
Q.28. What
does pioneer community mean in plant succession? 12425088
Q.29. What
is climax community? 12425089
Q.30. Differentiate between primary succession and secondary succession in ecology. 12425090
Q.31. Which
succession occurs more rapidly, primary or secondary and why? 12425091
Q.32. Explain
hydrosere, lithosere and xerosere in ecology. 12425092
Q.34. Where
do succulent plants such as cacti store water? 12425093
Q.35. Write
down the stages of xerosere kind of primary succession. 12425094
Q.36. Name
two foliose lichens. 12425095
Q.37. What
is a predator? 12425096
Q.38. Define
parasitism. 12425097
Q.39. Differentiate between ectoparasites and endoparasites. 12425098
Q.40. What
is symbiosis? 12425099
Q.41. Explain
mutualism. 12425100
Q.42. Describe mycorrhiza and lichen. (Board 2008) 12425101
Q.43. How
do root nodules of leguminous plants provide an example of symbiosis? 12425102
Q.44. Give definition of Commensalism and its example. (Board 2013,15) 12425103
Q.45. Define
grazing. (Board 2008,10) 12425104
Q.46. What is the effect of moderate grazing on the ecosystem?(Board-2010)
12425105
Q.47. What
is the effect of overgrazing and trampling by hoofed animals, on the ecosystem? (Board 2010) 12425106
Q.48. What
is the volume of nitrogen gas in the atmosphere? 12425107
Q.49. What is
ammonification? 12425108
Q.50. What is nitrification and how is it brought about? 12425109
Q.51. What
are the sources of soil
nitrates? 12425110
Q.52. Describe biogenic elements (nutrient elements). 12425111
Q.53.What are
the biochemical (biogeochemical) cycles? (LB-2006-07) 12425112
Q.54. Define
nitrogen cycle. 12425113
Q.55. Write
down the three main steps in nitrogen cycle. (Board 2015) 12425114
Q.56. Explain
assimilation in nitrogen cycle. 12425115
Q.57. How
does leakage of nitrogen (loss of nitrates) from the soil take place
during the nitrogen cycle? 12425116
Q.58. Explain denitrification. 12425117
Q.59. Give
definition of nitrogen-fixation. 12425118
Q.60. What
is the source of energy for the ecosystems? 12425119
Q.61 Differentiate
between gross and net primary productions in an ecosystem.
12425120
Q.62. What
is biomass? 12425121
Q.63. What
percentage of sun energy is received by the plants (producers)? 12425122
Q.64. What
happens to the remaining 99% of the solar energy, after 1% is trapped by the
producers? 12425123
A.65. A short food chain of two to three links supports a community more efficiently than a long chain of
five links. Why? 12425124
Q.66. How
do decomposers obtain energy? 12425125
Q.67. Compare population with community. (Board 2014) 12425126
Q.68. What is predation? Give its significance. (Board
2014,16) 12425127
Unit |
SOME MAJOR ECOSYSTEMS |
|
26 |
Multiple Choice Questions
1. The soil or
terrestrial ecosystems have some
adaptations for animals and plants.
a) Supporting tissues 12426012
b) Retention of food
c) Temperature d) Nutrients
2. Most plants
fit only into a few ecosystems which
type of plants seem in ecosystem of grass
land) 12426013
a) Trees b)
Shrubs
c) Perennial herbs d) Annual weeds
3. In which type
of ecosystem the smallest friction
of nutrients present in soil:
12426014
a) Savanna b) Tundra
c) Grassland d) Desert
4. What biome
will be with richest soil with nutrients
and can be converted into agriculture 12426015
a) Deciduous forest
b) Tropical rain forest
c) Grass land
d) Coniferous forest
5. Which of the
biomes has been increased in area by
human activities:
(Board 2016)
12426016
a)
Savanna b)
Grassland
c) Desert d)
Coniferous
6 Coniferous
forests located at high altitude are
called: (Board-2006,13) 12426017
a) alpine b)
boreal
c) arctic d)
both a & b
7. Coniferous
forests located at high latitude are
called: (Board 2013,15) 12426018
a) alpine b)
boreal
c) arctic d)
both a & b
8. Felis
bengalensis is commonly known as:
12426019
a) bear cat b) tiger cat
c) leopard cat d) pussy cat
9.. Fresh water
ecosystem covers less than:
12426020
a) 7% b)
5%
c) 3%, d)
1%
10. Grassland
ecosystems are found in:
12426021
a) Gilgit b)
North kallat
c) Waziristan d) All of the above
11. Grasslands
present in temperate climates are
also called: 12426022
a) Prairies b) pampas
c) plain d)
lowland
12. The perennial
plants are bushes or cacti with
large shallow root systems in:
12426023
a) grassland b) deserts
c) tundra d)
taiga
13. Overall
patterns of weather that prevail from
year to year even century-to-century in
a particular region is called: 12426024
a) Environment b) Climate
c) atmosphere d) All of the above
14.. Root in
plants and skeleton in animals support
them on land against the force of:
12426025
a) Attraction b) gravity
c) adhesion
d)
cohesion
15. Solenorotos
tibitanus is commonly known as: 12426026
a) leopard cat b) white dog
c) black bear d) blue whale
16. Some dominant
trees of temperate deciduous forests
are: 12426027
a) Taxus
baccata b) Pinus
wallichiana c) Berberis lyceum d) All of
the above
17. Stipa, Sporobolus, Oryzopsis are called:
12426028
a) tall grasses b) short grasses
c) mid high grasses d) super grasses
18 Which one is Tall grass: 12426029
a) Andropogon
b) Panicum
c) both a & b d)
Stipa
19. Annual rain fall
in deserts is less than:
12426030
a) 25 to 50 cm b)
10 to 20 cm
c) 15 -25 cm d)
20 to 40 cm
20. In grassland
ecosystem, annual rainfall is about
250 to: 12426031
a) 350 mm b)
450 mm
c) 650 mm d)
750 mm
21. Water is stored
for use during the period of drought in
fleshy stems of: 12426032
a) Cacti b)
Euphorbia
c) Both a & b d) None of these
22.. The water is
shallow, and plants find abundant
light, anchorage and adequate nutrients
from the bottom sediments in:
12426033
a) profundal zone b) limnetic zone
c) littoral zone d) None of these
23. In Pakistan
temperate moist conditions are present in: 12426034
a) Neelam valley b) Shogran
c) Waziristan d) both a & b
24. In Pakistan the
desert ecosystems are found in
western Punjab (Mianwalli and Bukhar)
where it is known as: 12426035
a) Thar b)
Thal (Board 2014)
c) Sahara d)
Gobi
25. In tropical and
subtropical grassland, rain reaches
about: 12426036
a) 1500 mm b) 2000 mm
c) 2500 mm d) 3000 mm
26. A willow 10
centimetres (4 inches) high may have
a trunk 7 centimetres (3 inches) in
diameter and be 50 years old in:
12426037
a) taiga b)
tundra
c) desert d)
savanna
27. Layering is the
characteristic of: 12426038
a) grassland b) tundra
c) desert d)
taiga
28. Light is
insufficient to support photosynthesis
in: 12426039
a)
littoral zone
b) limnetic zone
c)
profundal zone
d)
None of these
29. Littoral
invertebrate animals include:
12426040
a) small crustaceans b) insect larvae
c) snail flatworms. d) all of the above
30. In Sindh the desert ecosystem is called:
12426041
a) Thar b)
Thal
c) Sahara d)
Ghobi
31. In sub humid
tropical grassland rate of primary
production is more than:
12426042
a) 2000 g/m2 b) 3000 g/m2
c) 4000 g/m2 d) 6000 g/m2
32. The rate of
primary production is about 700
-1500 g/m2 annually in 12426043
a) desert
b) tundra
c) tropical
grassland
d)
temperate grassland
33.Root in plants
and skeleton in animals support
them on land against the force of:
12426044
a) attraction b) gravity
c) adhesion d) cohesion
34. Which one is
not a desert: (Board 2014) 12426045
a) Thal b)
Thar
c) Sahara d)
Taiga
35. Littoral
vertebrates include: 12426045 (a)
a) frogs b) aquatic snakes
c) turtles d) all of the above
36. Macaca
mulatta is commonly known as:
12426046
a) Rhesus monkey b) chimpanzee
c) apes d)
gorilla
37. Moderate
temperature ranges from 4°C - 30°C
in: 12426047
a) temperate deciduous forests
b) tropical rain forests
c) coniferous alpine forests
d) coniferous boreal forests
38. Northern
coniferous forests are also called: (Board
2014) 12426048
a) Tundra b)
Taiga
c) Savanna d) Prairies
39. Open water
area up to the light penetration
is: 12426049
a) littoral zone
b) profundal zone
c) limnetic zone
d) benthic zone
40. Pinus
wallichiana: Pinus roxburgii, Abies pindrow,
Picea smithiana, Cederous deodara
are plants of: 12426050
a) coniferous alpine and boreal forests. b) temperate deciduous forests
c) tropical rain forests
d) grassland ecosystem
41. Temperatures
may be below freezing point, up
to 10°C in: 12426051
a) coniferous alpine and boreal forests b) tropical rain forests
c) grassland ecosystem
d) desert
42. The average
rainfall is between 750 -1500 mm in: 12426052
a) temperate deciduous forests
b) coniferous alpine and boreal forests
c) tropical rain forests
d) grassland ecosystem
43. The productivity
can be indicated by:
(Board
2015) 12426053
a) Consumption of CO2
b) Evolution
of CO2
c) Consumption of CO2
d) Evolution
of N2
44. Tundra
ecosystem is located on Mountains: 12426054
a) Kara-Koram b) Hindukush
c) Salman d)
both a & b
45. While human
activities are reducing the extent
of many biomes, they are causing the
spread of deserts, a process called:
12426055
a) acidification b) desertification
c) corrosion d) eutrophication
46. In southern
punjab, deserts are present In:
12426056
a) Fort Abbas b) Bahawal Nagar
c) Khan pur d) All of these
47. The ecosystem
present on land or soil is called: 12426057
a) terrestrial
b) lithospheric ecosystem
c) aquatic
d) both a & b
48. The soil of
grass land is basically impermeable
with excessive: 12426058
a) Water
logging b) hardness
c) salinity
d) porosity
49. The
grasslands in tropic climates have woody
trees and are called: 12426059
a) Prairies b) Pampas
c) Savanna d) Steppes
50. The
grasslands which do not have woody plants
are known as: (Board 2006) 12426060
a) Prairies b) Pampas
c) Savanna d) Steppes
51. Which of the
biome has been increased in area by
human activities? 12426061
a)Savanna b)Grassland
c)Desert d)Coniferous
52. The major
factor that determines the quantity and
type of life in aquatic ecosystems
are: 12426062
a) energy
b) nutrient
c) both a & b
d) minerals
53. The more
common deserts, however, are characterized
by: 12426063
a) widely spaced vegetation
b) large area of bare grounds
c) both a & b
d) none
54. Which biome
will be with richest soil, with
nutrients and can be converted into agriculture?
(Board -2006) 12426064
a)Deciduous forest b)Tropical rain forest
c)Grassland
d)Coniferous forest
55.
Phytoplanktons are drifting:
a)
Plants (Board 2016) 12426064-a
b) Animals
c)
Protozoa
d)
Crustaceans
Short
questions
Q.1 What are Planktons?(Board 2007) 12426065
Q.2 How many sub-divisions forest
ecosystem is divided into? 12426066
Q.3 Which animals are present in
temperate deciduous forest? 12426067
Q.5 Differentiate between weather
and climate. (Board 2016) 12426068
Q.6 What is Taiga? 12426069
Q.7 Differentiate between alpine
and boreal forests: (Board 2015) 12426070
Q.8 Differentiate between prairies and savanna. (Board 2015) 12426071
Q.9 What is annual rain fall in grasslands? 12426072
Q.10 What is meant by desertification? 12426073
Q.11 What is Tundra? 12426074
Q.12 What is Timberline? 12426075
Q.13 Briefly discuss the Plant life in Tundra. 12426076
Q.14 Briefly describe the animal life in Tundra. 12426077
Q.15 Plants of coniferous
alpine and boreal forests: 12426078
Q.16 Write the name of some
major ecosystem on land in Pakistan.
(Board 2014) 12426079
Q.17 How many biomes are found
in the world? 12426080
Q.18 Write the name of
grasslands in Pakistan. 12426081
Q.19 How many zones are
presents in lake ecosystem? 12426082
Q.20 What is Limnetic zone?
Mention its life. (Board
2014,16) 12426083
Q.21. Can you differentiate
between altitude and latitude? 12426084
Q.22. How many regions open
water area is divided into? 12426085
Q.23. What is hydrospheric or
aquatic ecosystem? 12426086
Q.24. What types of organisms
are present in profundal zone of lake? 12426087
Q.25. What is the location of
coniferous alpine and boreal forests? 12426088
Q.26. What is layering in
ecosystem?
(Board 2007)
12426089
Q.27. What are the four major
requirements for life? Which two are limiting in terrestrial ecosystem? 12426090
Q.28. What are characteristics
of littoral Zone (near-shore)? 12426091
Q.29. What is the location
temperate deciduous forests in Pakistan and rest of the world? 12426092
Q.30. What is the range of
Rainfall and temperature in temperate deciduous forest? 12426093
Q.31. Name the plants of
temperate deciduous forest. 12426094
Q.32. What do you know about the
animal life of coniferous alpine and boreal forests? 12426095
Q.33. Name some predators of
grassland. 12426096
Q.34. What is the Productivity
of grassland ecosystem? (MB-2006) 12426097
Q.35. What is the location of
deserts in Pakistan? (Board 2015) 12426098
Q.36. Define productivity of an
ecosystem. (Board 2014) 12426099
Q.37. List adaptations in plants
and animals for terrestrial ecosystem.
(Board
2010) 12426100
Q.38. What is the average
rainfall in temperate decidous forest? (Board 2015)
12426101
Q.39. Give characteristics of
profundal zone. (Board 2015) 12426102
Q.40. Name two factors which
influence the life. (Board 2016) 12426102
Q.41. Name four common features
to aquatic ecosystem. (Board 2016) 12426102
|
Unit |
MAN AND HIS ENVIRONMENT
|
|
27 |
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Ozone molecule
is made up by binding of three atoms
of: 12427018
a) nitrogen b) oxygen
c) hydrogen d) carbon
2. Stone cancer is result of: 12427019
a) Soil
pollution
b) Water
pollution
c) Air
pollution
d) Stone
pollution
3. Polluted air
contains certain gases; like.
12427020
a) carbon monoxide
b) hydrocarbons
c) oxides of nitrogen & sulphur
d) all of the above
4. Examples of
renewable resources are
12427021
a) forests b) wild life
b) coal d)
both a & b
5. A form of air
pollution in which airborne acids
produced by electric utility plants and
other sources fall to Earth in distant regions
is: 12427022
a) Acid Rain b) Basic rain
c) heavy rain d) drizzling
6 .
Agro-chemicals are commonly called as:
12427023
a) pesticides b) fertilizers
c) both a & b d) toxins
7. Air consists of nitrogen (79%), oxygen (20%), carbon dioxide (0.03%) and traces of inert
gases called: 12427024
a) fine gases b) aromatic gases
c) noble gases d) gracious gases
8. Air is being polluted rapidly due to:
12427025
a) industrialization b) automobiles
c) sewage d)
both a & b
9. Anything in
the air that may be harmful to living
-organisms is: 12427026
a) air pollution b) water pollution
c) land pollution d) noise pollution
10 As CFCs rise
to the atmosphere, ultraviolet rays
release: 12427027
a) fluorine b) chlorine
c) carbon d)
hydrogen
11. The fossil
fuels are: 12427028
a) Coal b)
oil
c) gas d)
all of the above
12. The earth
surface covered with water is:
a) 35% b)
55% 12427029
c) 75% d)
95%
13 Water used for
Domestic industries purpose is about: 12427030
a) 10% b)
20%
c) 30% d)
40%
14. Water used
for irrigation purposes is about: 12427031
a) 9%
b) 90%
c) 70% d)
50%
15. The total
water of planet earth in Ocean is about: 12427032
a) 47% b)
77%
c) 97% d)
11%
16. A layer of
atmosphere extending from 10 - 50
kilometers above earth is: 12427033
a) air b)
cloud
c) Ozone d)
meteor
17. As the human population increases, there is an increased demand for: 12427034
a) space b)
clothing
c) food d) water
18. Bioconversion
is the digestion of wastes by
bacteria which produce: 12427035
a)
methane b)
ethane,
c) butane d)
propane
19.. Rain that falls
on high areas such as mountains
possesses large m amount of gravitational: 12427036
a) heat energy b) kinetic energy
c) electrical energy d)potential energy
20. Soil is
continuously depleting its mineral nutrients,
due to vigorous: (LB-2007)
12427037
a) crop production
b) tree production
c) population explosion
d) deforestation
21. The study of
human populations and things
that affect them is called:
(Board
2015) 12427038
a) Calligraphy b) Demography
c) Chromatography d) Homography
22. Each nuclear power
station only can last for about: 12427039
a) 10 years b) 20 years
c) 30 years d) 40 years
23. A natural
process in which surface soil is removed
by the action of water or wind is: 12427040
a) corrosion b) attrition
c) erosion d) weathering
24.The natural
process of excessive enrichment of
water with nutrients by which large
amount of living organisms grows in .the
water is: 12427041
a) oligotrophication b) trophication
c) eutrophication. d) atrophication
25. Clearance of
vast areas of forest for lumber, planting
subsistence crops or grazing cattle is called
as: 12427042
a) deforestation b) aforestation
c) forestation d) reforestation
26. The total area
of the world under cultivation is: 12427043
a) 1% b)
11%
c) 21% d)
33%
27. Exhaustible
resources include fossil fuels like: 12427044
a) coal b)
oil
c) natural gas d) all of the above
28. In oceans,
especially in tropical regions, temperature
of surface water is about:
a) 10°C b)
15°C 12427045
c) 25°C d)
30 °C
29. In oceans,
temperature at the depth of few hundred
meters is only: 12427046
a) 5°C b)
15°C
c) 25 °c d)
35 °C
30. Industries have
always been the largest consumers
of: 12427047
a) kinetic energy b) electrical energy
c) potential energy d) heat energy
31. A direct or
indirect source for food, shelter, clothing,
fuel etc for humans is: 12427048
a) environment b) land
c) sun d)
water
32. A treasure of all types of resources essential
to maintain life on earth is: 12427049
a) environment b) land
c) sun d)
water
33. Modern man is
called: 12427050
a) Homo erectus
b) Homo habilis
c) Homo sapiens
d) Homo neanderthalensis
34. Nuclear energy is obtained from nuclear fuels
by: 12427051
a) binary fission b) atomic fission
c) transverse fission d) nuclear fission
35. Only 30% of
the earth is dry land the remainder
being covered with: 12427052
a) water b)
air
c) trees d)
grass
36. The causes of
green house effect are: 12427053
a) Over urbanization b) deforestation
c) industrialization d) all of the above
37. The decline
in thickness of the ozone layer is caused
by increasing level of 12427054
a) chlorofluorocarbon b) nitrogen
c) chlorine d) carbon dioxide
38. The steady
internal state of homeostasis is known
as: 12427055
a) disease b) normal health
c) malady d)
woe
39. To achieve
better living condition, it is essential
to: 12427056
a) increase food production
b) decrease expenditure
c) control the population growth
d) use environmental resources
40. The
destruction of forests leave the soil barren and
this is called: 12427057
a) a-forestation b) forestation
c) deforestation d) all of the above
41. The natural
heat energy trapped underground is called: 12427058
a) hydro-electric energy
b) thermal energy
c) geo energy
d) geothermal energy
42. In year 2000,
the population of Pakistan was around: 12427059
a) 150-160 million b) 100-110 million
c) 120 -130 million d) 210 -220 million
43. At the time
of independence in 1947, the population
of Pakistan was: 12427060
a) 10 million b) 20 million
c) 25.7 million d) 32.5 million
44.Vast
quantities of algae feed and reproduce on the nutrients
causing the water to turn green with algal: 12427061
a) blossom b) thrive
c) growth d)
bloom
45. The largest
consumers of electrical energy have
always been: 12427062
a) Homes b)
offices
c) Agriculture d) Industries
46. The chemical
waste from industry is called:
12427063
a) sewage b)
bilge water
c) effluent d) seepage
47.
Agro-chemicals are used in: 12427064
a) industry b) house
c) office d)
agriculture
48. The escape of hot substance from the inside
of the earth is allowed by: 12427065
a) Volcanoes
b) hot springs
c) geysers
d) all of the above
49. While
establishment of new forest where no forests
existed previously is called: 12427066
a) aforestation b) forestation
c) deforestation d) none
50. All non-cultivated
plants and non-domesticated animals refer to: 12427067
a) natural life b) Wild life
c) untamed life d) tame life
51. The balance
in the nutrient cycle can be upset when: 12427068
a) not enough food is produced
b) too much is consumed
c) decayed nutrients are not returned to the ground
d) all of the
above
52. The total
water of planet earth present in the form
of frozen ice caps is about: 12427069
a) 1% b)
2%
c) 4% d)
8%
53. Main use of water is: 12427070
a) Domestic industries use 10%
b) irrigation utilization 90%
c). both a and b
d) none of above
54. Our daily
energy requirements met from fossil fuels
are: 12427071
a) 35% b)
55%
c) 75% d)
95%
55. A pesticide
is a chemical, which destroys agricultural: 12427072
a) pests b)
competitors
c) crops d)
both a & b
56. Which of the continent has the highest rate of
human population 12427073
a) Australia b) Africa
c) Asia d)
North America
57. If the
population is above the carrying capacity what
must happen 12427074
a) It must immediately cure.
b) It can remain stable indefinitely
c) It can continue to increase
d) It must eventually decline
58. What is our principal source of energy:
(Board
2006) 12427075
a) Nuclear energy
b) Geothermal energy
c) Solar energy d) Tidal energy
59. Batteries
store which type of energy. 12427076
a) Electrical b) Mechanical
c) Chemical d) Nuclear
60. The upper
layer of earth crust is: (Board 2006)
a) Sand b)
Clay 12427077
c) Soil d)
Rock
61. In human mental illness diease is due to:
(Board
2014) 12427078
a)
Alzheimer b) Kwashiorkor
c) Diphtheria d) Heamophilia
62. Alzheimer disease is a. (Board 2016) 12427078
a)
Physical
illness
b) Mental
illness
c) Renal illness
d) Pulmonary illness
63. Environment buffer is
a: (Board 2016) 12427078-a
a) Desert
b) Gsosoland
c) Community
d) Forest
Short questions
Q.1)
Why coal,
oil and gas are called fossil fuels? 12427079
Q.2)
What
are the main sources of water pollution? 12427080
Q.3)
Differentiate
between health and disease. 12427081
Q.4)
What
is ozone layer? 12427082
Q.5)
What
do you mean by non-renewable resources? 12427083
Q.6)
What
is difference between deforestation and Aforestation? (Board 2006,10,14) 12427084
Q.7)
Define
biodiversity? 12427085
Q.8)
What
is water pollution? 12427086
Q.9)
Define
Green House effect.
(Board
2007,8)
12427087
Q.10) What is acid rain?
(Board 2006) 12427088
Q.11) What is algal bloom? 12427089
Q.12. What is eutrophication?
(Board 2015) 12427090
Q.13. What is wild life? 12427091
Q.14. What is the importance of
wild life?
12427092
Q.15. What are inexhaustible
resources of energy? 12427093
Q.16. What are exhaustible sources of energy? 12427094
Q.17. What are causes of tides? 12427095
Q.18. What is geothermal energy? 12427096
Q.19. Give four ways to conserve
energy. 12427097
Ans.
Q.20. What is reforestation? 12427098
Q.21. What are environmental
buffers? 12427099
Q.22. Define pollution. 12427100
Q.23. What are the effects of
ozone depletion? (MB-2007) 12427101
Q.24. What are causes of green house effect? 12427102
Q.25. Give two effects of acid
rains?
12427103
Q.26. What is a pesticide? 12427104
Q.27. What is nutrient cycle? 12427105
Q.28. What are the main types of pollution? 12427106
Q.29.Why are trees (forest) called environmental buffers? 12427107
Q.30.Give the sources and harmful effects of chlorofolorocarbons.(Board
2015) 12427108
Q.31.Differentiate between renewable and non-renewable resources. (Board 2015) 12427109
Q.32. Define population pressure. Give one example of its effect on
ecosystem. 12427110
(Board 2014)
Q.33. Define demography. (Board 2014) 12427111
Q.34. What are renewable resources?
(Board 2014) 12427112
Q.35. Write names of disease caused due to nutritional deficiency. Board 2016) 12427112
Q.36.Define soil. Give its basic constituent.
(Board 2016) 12427112
