Unit 1

BIOLOGY AND ITS MAJOR FIELDS

OF SPECIALIZATION

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The study of microorganisms which include bacteria, viruses, protozoa and microscopic algae and fungi comes under:

(a) Molecular biology 11401013

(b) Bacteriology

(d) Virology

2. The study of life in seas and oceans comes under the heading of: 11401014

(a) Ocean biology

(b) Freshwater biology

(d) Marine biology

3. The structure, mode of transmission, life histories and host-parasite relationships are studied in: 11401015

(a) Entomology (b) Parasitology

4. The branch of biology which deals with the study of social behaviour and communal life of human beings is called: 11401016

4.(a) Behaviour biology

(b) Common biology

(d) Social biology

5. The use of living organisms systems or processes in manufacturing and service industries is administered under: 11401017

(a) Systematic biology (Board 2014)

(b) Biotechnology

(d) Molecular biology

6. Only six bio-elements account for 99% of the total mass of: 11401018

(a) Human body (b) Animal body

7. Oxygen, carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen constitute approximately ______ % of human body. 11401019

(a) 93 (b) 96

8. A living thing has a built-in regulatory mechanism which interact with the environment to sustain its: 11401020

(a) Ecological integrity

(b) Structural and functional integrity

(d) Existence

9. A living thing is composed of highly structured living substance or: 11401021

(a) Leucoplasm (b) Nucleoplasm

10. The part of earth inhabited by living organisms; includes both the living and non-living components called: 11401022

(a) Biosphere

(b) Hemisphere

(d) Stratosphere

11. All living and non-living matters are formed of simple units called: 11401023

(a) Cells (b) Atoms

12. The atoms of different elements combine with each other to produce compounds through: 11401024

(a) Weak bonding

(b) Dipole-dipole

(d) Dipole-dipole or covalent bonding

13. Starch and protein are the examples of high molecular weight molecules called:

(a) Macromolecules 11401025
(b) Megamolecules

(d) Both (a) and (c)

14. The number of chemical elements found in the chemical compounds of living organisms out of 92 naturally occurring elements is: 11401026

(a) 6 (b) 16

15. Specific 16 elements and a few others which occur in a particular organism are called: 11401027

(a) Biogeoelements

(b) Chemical elements

(d) Both b) & (c) are correct

16. The entire organism consists of a cell in:

(a) Virus 11401028

(b) Bacteria

(d) Both b and c are correct

17. In most fungi, plants and animals, the organism may consist of cells up to: 11401029

(a) Millions (b) Billions

18. Golgi complex, mitochondria, ribosome, endoplasmic reticulum are called: 11401030

(a) Sub-cellular structures

(b) Organelles

(d) All of above

19. The arrangement of the organelles speaks of the division of labour within the: 11401031

(a) Cell (b) Organ

20. Only a limited type and number of organelles are found in the cytoplasm of:

(a) Eukaryotes (b) Fungi 11401032

21. Eukaryotes are rich in number and kinds of structures: 11401033

(a) Membranous

(b) Mitochondria

(d) Non-membranous

22. An organic molecule is any molecule containing both: 11401034

(a) Carbon and oxygen

(b) Carbon and hydrogen

(d) Hydrogen and oxygen

23. In multicellular animals and plants groups of similar cells are organized into loose sheets or bundles performing similar functions, these are called: 11401035

(a) Organ (b) Tissue

24. Stomach is an organ having the function of food digestion (protein part) secretes gastric juice through: 11401036

(a) Secretory endothelium

(b) Non-secretory epithelium

(d) Secretory epithelium

25. The organ level of organization is much less definite in plants than it is in: 11401037

(a) Humans (b) Cattle

26. Which part of the plant is involved in producing the next generation? 11401038

(a) Flower (b) Leaf

27. In animals, the coordination is achieved by: 11401039

(a) Circulatory and lymphatic system

(b) Respiratory and transportation system

(d) Nervous and endocrine system

28. In plants, only long term regulation of activities is brought about by: 11401040

(a) Vitamins (b) Hormones

29. A group of living organisms of the same species located in the same place at the same time is called: 11401041

(a) Population (b) Community

30. Communities are dynamic collection of organism, in which one population may increase in size and others may decrease due to fluctuation in: 11401042

(a) Biotic factors

(b) Abiotic and biotic factors

(d) Decomposers

31. A biome is a large regional community primarily determined by: 11401043

(a) Environment

(b) Climate

d) Topography

32. The distribution of organisms in space can be studied through: 11401044

(a) Biomes (b) Maps

33. Biomes have been named after the type of major plants or major feature of the:

(a) Region (b) Ecosystem 11401045 (c) Animals (d) Biosphere

34. Since the time of origin of life on this planet, various organisms were evolved and dominated this planet during various periods of: 11401046

(a) Geological time chart

(b) Earth history

(d) Both (a) & (b) are correct

35. As geological time passes and new layers of sediments are laid down, the older organisms should be in: 11401047

(a) Shallow layers (b) Surface layers

36. It is possible to date/age rocks by comparing the amounts of certain: 11401048

(a) Radiopassive isotopes

(b) Elements

(d) Radioactive isotopes

37. The fossils found in the same layer must have been alive during the same: 11401049

(a) Ecological period

(b) Geographical period

(d) None of above

38. Currently, the number of species of organisms, known to science is: 11401050

(a) 2.5 million (b) 3.5 million

39. What is the number of insects in percentage among known species of organisms: 11401051

(a) 17.6% (b) 63.1%

40. The life today has come into existence through: 11401052

(a) Chance

(b) Evolution

(d) Both (b) & (c) are correct

41. Evolutionary change often produces new species and then increases: 11401053

(a) Population (b) Pollution

42. Science is a systematized knowledge and based on: 11401054

(a) Experimental inquiry
(b) Hypothesis

(d) Philosophical approach

43. Observations are made with five senses viz. vision, hearing, smell, taste and touch depending upon their: 11401055

(a) Demonstrating ability
(b) Active ability

44. Hypothesis is a tentative explanation of:

(a) Demonstrations 11401056

(b) Observations

(d) Reasonings

45. The consequence of deductive reasoning or inductive reasoning may result into:

(a) Hypothesis 11401057

(b) Law

(d) Both (b) & (c)

46. The science tends to be generalized from the specific events, so uses: 11401058

(a) Deductive methods

(b) Inductive methods

(d) Reproductive methods

47. If a theory survives and continues to be supported by experimental evidence becomes a: 11401059 (a) Universal law (b) Natural law

48. Biological advances in the field of food and health have resulted in: 11401060

(a) Advancement of life patterns

(b) High standard of life

(d) All of above

49. Poultry breeders have developed, for getting quick and cheap white meat: 11401061

(a) Chickens (b) Ducks

50. Transgenic plants can be propagated by:

(a) Gene manipulation 11401062

(b) Genetic engineering

(d) All of above

51. An aphid that attacks walnut tree is being controlled by a: 11401063

(a) Mosquito (b) Wasp

52. The technique or a test to check whether certain nutrient is essential for plant or not is called: 11401064

(a) Hydroponic culture technique

(b) Hydrotonic culture technique

(d) Hydroponic tissue technique

53. Pasteurization is a technique developed by:

(a) Edward Jenner 11401065

(b) Robert Koch

(d) Louis Pasteur

54. AIDS is the abbreviation of: 11401066

(a) An Immune Deficiency Syndrome

(b) An Immuno Deficiency System

(d) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome

55. Many diseases such as polio, measles, mumps, etc. can be controlled by vaccination or: 11401067

(a) Drops (b) Shots

56. Edward Jenner first developed the technique of vaccination in: 11401068

(a) 1796 (b) 1775

57. It is claimed that smallpox has been totally eliminated from world by using: 11401069

(a) Vaccination (b) Shots

58. Vaccine against AIDS is being administered in humans on: 11401070

(a) Commercial basis

(b) Emergency basis

(d) Large scale

59. Which one of the following is not a viral disease? 11401071

(a) Cowpox (b) Mumps

60. Which one of the following is not related to cloning? 11401072

(a) Replacement of the nucleus of zygote, by another nucleus of the same organism

(b) Separation of cells of embryo to form more embryos.

(d) Removal of piece of DNA or gene from the cell, and incorporating another gene or piece of DNA in its place.

61. Which one of the following is employed in treatment of cancer? 11401073

(a) Antibiotics and vaccination

(b) Radiotherapy and chemotherapy

(d) All of the above

62. Which one of the following is a correct sequence in biological method: 11401074

a) Observations-Hypothesis-Law-Theory

(b) Observations-Hypothesis Deduction

Testing of deduction

(d) Law Theory Deduction Observation

63. Cloning is a technique/or achieving:

(a) Hygienic aims 11401075

(b) Eugenic aims

(d) All of above

64. All members of a clone are genetically identical except when an: 11401076

(a) Mutation occurs

(b) Hazard occurs

(d) Evolution occurs

65. In 1997, scientists in Scotland succeeded in cloning a: (Board 2015) 11401077

(a) Buffalo (b) Sheep

66. At some places scientists are making attempt to clone human embryo which they believe can serve as: 11401078

(a) Transplant recipient

(b) Transplantation

(d) All of above

67. The removal of environmental pollutants or toxic material or simply degradation by living organisms is called: 11401079

(a) Bioremediation (b) Biomagnification

68. Algae have been found to reduce pollution of heavy metal by: 11401080

(a) Bioabsorption (b) Bioremediation

69. The reasoning from the general to specific is called: (Board 2007) 11401081

(a) Deductive (b) Scientific

70. A large regional community primarily determined by climate is a: (Board 2008,15)

(a) Biome (b) Triome 11401082

71. The tentative explanation of observation is called: (Board 2007, 12) 11401083

(a) Hypothesis (b) Deduction

72. Defective gene can be repaired: 11401084

(Board. 2004)

(a) Chemotherapy (b) Gene therapy

73. Fungi, algae, protozoa and various other prokaryotes are: (Board 2006) 11401085

(a) 7.4% (b) 19.9%

74. The insects are: (Board 2007) 11401086

(a) 53.1% (b) 19.9%

75. The percentage of phosphorus in human body is: (Board 2013) 11401087

(a) 1% (b) 2%

76. Which period is not related to paleozoic? 11401088

(a) Silurian (b) Triassic

77. First living organisms originated in: 11401089

(a) Cenozoic era (b) Paleozoic era

78. Which one of the following can perform biological control? 11401090

(a) Aphid (b) walnut

79. Which one of the following can perform bioabsorption? 11401091

(a) Fungi (b) Algae

80. Which period is related to Cenozoic era?

11401092

(a) Tertiary (b) Triassic

81. Which level of biological organization is less definite in plants? 11401093

(a) Organ level (b) Tissue level

Short Questions

Q.1. Define Specie. 11401094

Q.2. Define Population. Give example

(Board 2005,07,15) 11401095

Q.3. Define Community. (Board 2005, 07) 11401096

Q.4. Define Hypothesis. 11401097

Q.5. Define Cloning. (Board 2007) 11401098

Q.6. What is meant by bioremediation?

11401099

Q.7. What are endangered species? 11401100

Q.8. Define Biotechnology. 11401101

Q.9. What is a Biome? (Board 2014) 11401102

Q.10. Define biodiversity. 11401103

Q.11. What is phyletic lineage?

(Board 2015) 11401104

Q.12. How is a Theory formed? (Board 2007) 11401105

Q.13. Define a Law. (Board 2007) 11401106

Q.14. What are transgenic plants 11401107

Q.15. What is meant by Biological control?

What is the significance of biological control? (Board 2007,14) 11401108

Q.16. What is Hydroponic culture technique? (Board 2006, 07,14) 11401109

Q.17. What is gene therapy? (Board 2010) 11401110

Q.18. What is meant by integrated disease management? 11401111

Q.19. What are deductive and inductive reasoning? (Board 2007, 08, 15) 11401112

Q.20. Define Biosphere. (Board 2013) 11401114

Q.21. Differentiate between population and community. (Board 2013) 11401115

Q.22. Define theory. Give important features of theory. (Board 2013) 11401116

Q.23. What are the attributes of population? (Board 2013) 11401117

Q.24. Name the bioelements. Which constitute 1% of the total human biomass.

(Board 2013) 11401118

Q.25. Give the percentage of six bioelements which constitute 99% of the total human biomass. 11401119

Q.26. Define parasitology. 11401120

Q.27. Differentiate micro-molecules and macro-molecules. 11401121

Q.28. What is radiotherapy? 11401122

Q.29. What is chemotherapy? 11401123

Q.30. Why organ system of animals is more complex in animals than in plants? 11401124

Q.31. Give some features of a community.

11401125

Q.32. In which ways Biology play role for the welfare of mankind? 11401126

Unit 2

BIOLOGICAL MOLECULES

Objectives + Short Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Anatomy and physiology of the living beings can be better understood in the light of:

(a) Microbiology 11402024

(b) Ecology

(d) Biochemistry

2. Which of the following is a group of organic compounds? 11402025

(a) Lipids, nucleic acids and nitric acid

(b) Proteins, acids, lipids

(d) Carbon dioxide, acids, bases

3. Of the total weight of a bacterial cell, carbohydrates constitute only: 11402026

(a) 1% (b) 2%

4. 18% of the total weight of a mammalian cell is the: 11402027

(a) Water (b) Proteins

5. The total weight of a mammalian cell, DNA forms 11402028

(a) 1% (b) 1.1%

6. RNA constitutes 1.1 % of the total weight of a: 11402029

(a) Bacterial Cell

(b) Mammalian cell

(d) Fungal cell

7. All the chemical reactions taking place within a cell are collectively called: 11402030

(a) Anabolism (b) Catabolism

8. Carbon combines with nitrogen in amino acid linkages to form: 11402031

(a) Covalent bonds

(b) Peptide bonds

(d) Glycosidic bonds

9. The most abundant compound in the bodies of all the organisms is the: 11402032

(a) Protein (b) Lipid

10. In different organisms the amount of water varies from 65 to: 11402033

(a) 85% (b) 89%

11. Human tissues contain about 20 percent water in: 11402034

(a) Liver cells

(b) Kidney cells

(d) Bone cells

12. The brain cells of man contain 85 percent:

(a) Sugar (b) Carbon 11402035

13. Ionic substances when dissolved in water, dissociate into: 11402036

(a) Positive ions

(b) Negative ions

(d) Neutral ions

14. In the living cells the best solvent is the:

(a) Alcohol (b) Ether 11402037

15. The most abundant organic compound in the cells is the: 11402038

(a) Carbohydrate (b) Lipid

16. Evaporation of only two ml out of one liter of water lowers the temperature of the remaining 998 ml by: 11402039

(a) 1^oC (b) 2°C

17. Which one of the following is not a carbohydrate? 11402040

(a) Starch (b) Glycogen

18. Sakcharon meaning sugar is a: 11402041

(a) Greek word (b) Latin word

19. The aldehyde form of a triose (C₃H₆O₃) is the: 11402042

(a) Glyceraldehyde

(b) Formaldehyde

20. The ketonic form of a 3-carbon sugar {C₃H₆O₃} is the: 11402043

(a) Phosphoglyceraldehyde

(b) Acetonylacetone

(d) Glyceraldehyde

21. 4-carbon sugars are called tetroses which occur in some: 11402044

(a) Viruses (b) Bacteria

22. Biologically, the most important hexose is the: 11402045

(a) Fructose (b) Galactose

23. The structural ring formed by the ribose sugar in the solution state is known as:

(a) Glucopyranose 11402046

(b) Isoprenoid

(d) Glucose

24. When dissolved in water, the glucose forms a six cornered ring called: 11402047

(a) Glucofuranose

(b) Ribofuranose

(d) Glucopyranose

25. The covalent bond between two monosaccharides is called:

(Board 2005) (Board 2014) 11402048

(a) Peptide bond (b) Ionic bond

26. Which one of the following is not disaccharide? 11402049

(a) Maltose (b) Sucrose

27. Sucrose (cane sugar) is the most familiar disaccharide which on hydrolysis yields:

(a) Glucose and galactose 11402050

(b) Glucose and glucose

(d) Fructose and galactose

28. Which one of the following is not a polysaccharide? 11402051

(a) Agar (b) Chitin

29. Animals obtain carbohydrates mainly from: 11402052

(a) Glucose (b) Starch

30. Starches are of two types, amylose and: 11402053

(a) Pectin (b) Amylopectin

31. Starches with iodine give colour:

(Board 2014) 11402054

(a) Red (b) Yellow

32. The polysaccharide found stored in plant parts is the: 11402055

(a) Starch (b) Glucose
(c) Glycogen (d) Cellulose

33. The chief form of polysaccharide found stored in the animal bodies is the: 11402056

(a) Starch (b) Glycogen

34. The most abundant carbohydrate in nature is the: 11402057

(a) Glucose (b) Cellulose

35. Cotton is a pure form of: 11402058

(a) Glycogen (b) Pectin

36. The cellulose is digested in the alimentary canal of herbivores because of the microorganisms settled there such as the:

(a) Bacteria, algae and protozoans 11402059

(b) Bacteria, viruses and Fungi

(d) Bacteria, yeasts and protozoans

37. Cellulose when treated with iodine gives:

(a) Blue colour (b) Red colour 11402060

38. The lipids are the compounds related to:

(a) Pyruvic acid (b) Abscisic acid 11402061

39. Lipids are soluble in: 11402062

(a) Water (b) Oleic acid

40. Acylglycerols can be defined as esters of fatty acids and: 11402063

(a) Alcohol (b) Ether

41. Which one of the following is not lipid?

(a) Cholesterol (b) Wax 11402064

42. One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules react together to form one molecule of: 11402065

(a) Acylglycerol (b) Triacylglycerol

43. The melting point of Palmitic acid is:

(a) 8°C (b) 23°C 11402066

44. 8°C is the melting point of an organic acid called: 11402067

(a) Acetic acid (b) Butyric acid

45. The number of carbon atoms in one molecule of oleic acid is: 11402068

(a) 15 (b) 17

46. Fats containing saturated fatty acids are:

(a) Liquid (b) Semi fluid 11402069

47. Nitrogenous bases such as choline, ethanolamine and serine are important components of: 11402070

(a) Sphingolipids (b) Phospholipids:

48. Phosphatidic acid is composed of glycerol, two fatty acids and a: 11402071

(a) Nitric acid (b) Phosphoric acid

49. The most abundant organic compound found in the cells is the: 11402072

(a) Carbohydrate (b) Lipid

50. Of the total dry weight of the living cells, proteins constitute over: 11402073

(a) 30% (b) 40%

51. All the enzymes are chemically: 11402074

(a) Proteins (b) Carbohydrates

52. Proteins are polymers of: 11402075

(a) Amino acids

(b) Fatty acids

(d) Organic acids

53. In the living cells and tissues are found amino acids of: 11402076

(a) 20 types (b) 25 types

54. An amino acid contains an amino group and a carboxyl group attached to the same:

(a) Carbon atom 11402077

(b) Hydrogen atom

(d) Oxygen atom

55. Peptide bond is a: 11402078

(a) C-N link (b) C-O link

56. Peptide bonds are found in: 11402079

(a) Carbohydrates

(b) Lipids

(d) Inorganic compounds

57. The amino group of one amino acid may link with carboxyl group of the other by peptide bond, releasing a molecule of:

(a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen 11402080

58. Insulin is a protein consisting of two polypeptide chains of amino acids held together by: 11402081

(a) Peptide bonds
(b) Covalent bonds

(d) Disulphide bonds

59. The total number of amino acid comprising a molecule of insulin is: 11402082

(a) 21 (b) 30

60. Haemoglobin is a: 11402083

(a) Fibrous protein

(b) Coiled protein

(d) Globular protein

61. The number of proteins in the human body is: 11402084

(a) 10,000 (b) 15,000

62. Which of the following is not a fibrous protein? 11402085

(a) Silk (b) Fibrin

63. Globular proteins differ from fibrous proteins in: 11402086

(a) Having amino acids

(b) Their repeating units joined by peptide bond

(d) Being non-crystalline

64. The nucleic acids were first isolated from the nuclei of the pus cells in 1869 by:

11402087

(a) Sanger (b) Miescher

65. The nucleic acids are made up of: 11402088

(a) Pyrimidines (b) Purines

66. A compound formed by the combination of a nitrogenous, base and a pentose sugar is called: 11402089

(a) Nucleotide (b) Phosphatide

67. Nucleotide is formed by the combination of a nucleoside and a: 11402090

(a) Glutamic acid

(b) Butyric acid

(d) Phosphoric acid

68. The nucleotides of each polynucteotide chain of DNA are held together by: 11402091

(a) Ester linkages

(b) Disulphide linkages

(d) Phosphoric linkages

69. Which of the following amounts of bases are more likely to be found in an organism.

11402092

(a) Adenine 30.9% and cytosine 30.7%

(b) Guanine 27.5% and adenine 27.8%

(d) Adenine 32% and thymine 31.9%

70. In RNA, the nitrogenous base thymine of DNA is replaced by: 11402093

(a) Adenine (b) Uracil

71. DNA synthesizes: 11402094

(a) Messenger RNA
(b) Transfer RNA

(d) Messenger RNA, transfer RNA and ribosomal RNA.

72. Of the total RNA in a cell, mRNA comprises: 11402095

(a) 3% (b) 4%

73. Amino acids are arranged in proper sequence during protein synthesis according to the instructions transcribed on: 11402096

(a) Transfer RNA (b) Ribosomal RNA

74. Polynucleotide chain of tRNA molecule consists of: 11402097

(a) 75 nucleotides

(b) 90 nucleotides

75. Of the total RNA in a cell, tRNA comprises 10 to 20% while the rRNA amounts to: 11402098

(a) 60% (b) 70%

76. Nucleic acids have special affinity for:

(a) Acidic proteins 11402099

(b) Basic proteins

(d) Neutral proteins

77. The examples of conjugated molecules in the cells are the: 11402100

(a) Glycoproteins

(b) Lipoproteins

(d) Glycolipids

78. Who provided data about the ratios of different bases present in DNA molecule?

(a) Wilkins 11402101

(b) Rasalind Franklin

(d) F. Sanger

79. Glycerol is the backbone molecule for:

(a) Disaccharides (b) DNA 11402102

80. When protein undergoes hydrolysis, the end products are: 11402103

(a) Amino acids

(b) Monosaccharides

(d) Nucleotides

81. To produce lactose: 11402104

(a) Two amino acids must form a peptide bond

(b) Pairing of nitrogenous bases must occur between nucleotides

(d) Glucose and galactose must undergo dehydration

82. All the enzymes are: 11402105

(a) Polysaccharides (b) Proteins

83. The function of ATP is to: 11402106

(a) Act as a template for production of protein

(b) Store energy

(d) Determine the function of the cell

84. All organic compounds contain the elements: 11402107

(a) Iron and oxygen

(b) Carbon and oxygen

(d) Carbon and nitrogen

85. Which of the following is considered to be neutral? 11402108

(a) Urine (b) Pure water

86. Which molecule is used for short term energy storage? 11402109

(a) Fat (b) Chitin

87. The functional group COOH is: 11402110

(a) Acidic (b) Basic

(d) All of these are correct

88. Which of the following is an example of hydrolysis: 11402111

(a) Amino acid + amino acid ® Dipeptide + H₂O

(b) Dipeptide + H₂O ® amino acid + amino acid

(d) Monosacharride + monosaccharide ® Disaccharide.

89. A fatty acid is unsaturated if it: 11402112

(a) Contains hydrogen

(b) Contains double bonds

(d) Bonds to glycogen

90. Which is not a lipid? 11402113

(a) Steroid (b) Fat

91. Nucleotides contain: 11402114

(a) Sugar, nitrogen containing base and a phosphate molecule

(b) Monomer for fat and polysaccharide

(d) Sugar, nitrogenous base and sulphur

92. ATP is a/an: 11402115

(a) Amino acid

(b) Helical structure

(d) Enzyme

93. The steroids are classified as: 11402116

(a) Carbohydrates (b) Lipids

94. Haemoglobin is an example of which functional class of proteins? 11402117

(a) Contractile (b) Structural

95. Which of the following represent accurate pairing in DNA molecules: 11402118

(a) Adenine to adenine and guanine to guanine

(b) Adenine to uracil and cytosine to guanine

(d) Adenine to thymine and cytosine to guanine

96. The suffix that denotes a sugar is: 11402119

(a) ase (b) ose

97. Polar molecules: 11402120

(a) Are pointed at both ends

(b) Are found at the ends of other molecules

(d) All of the above

98. Metabolic activities include: 11402121

(a) Digestion (b) Respiration

99. Large molecules with skeletons of carbon atoms are said to be: 11402122

(a) Organic (b) Inorganic

100. The combining capacity of an atom or ion is called: 11402123

(a) Valency

(b) pH

(d) Elemental balance

101. DNA model was suggested by: 11402124

(a) Watson and Crick

(b) Wilkins and Franklin

(d) Chargaff

102. Conjugated histone proteins are: 11402125

(a) Structural and regulatory

(Functional) proteins

(b) Only structural proteins

(d) Transport proteins

103.Phosphatidylcholine is one of the common: (Board 2015) 11402126

(a) Phospholipid (b) Sphingolipid

104.Most of cellular secretions are in nature: (Board 2015) 11402127

(a) Proteins

(b) Lipids

(d) Glycoproteins

105. Type of bond principally associated with maintaining alpha helix shape of protein is: 11402128

(a) Disulphide bond (b) Peptide bond

106. The two helices of DNA are held together by: 11402129

(a) Ionic bond

(b) Phosphoidester bond

(d) Hydrogen bond

107. Fructose is a: 11402130

(a) Aldo sugar

(b) Keto sugar

(d) Pentose sugar

108. Type of bond associated with maintaining primary structure of protein is: 11402131

(a) Disulphide bond (b) Peptide bond

109. Following bond is important for energy:

(a) C – H (b) C – O 11402132

110.Human tissues have maximum water in:

11402133

(a) Brain cells (b) Blood cells

111.The first microbe to have the genome completely sequenced is: 11402134

(a) E. coli

(b) Mycoplasmas

(d) Streptococcus

112.The amount of DNA/nucleus (in pictogram) in chicken red blood cells:

(a) 2.4 (b) 2.3 11402134

113.Amount of DNA/nucleus is 1.3 picogram in Chicken: 11402135

(a) RBCs (b) Kidney cells

114.The amount of DNA is fixed for particular species, as it depends upon the: 11402136

(a) number of cells

(b) number of chromosomes

(d) All of these

115.How many base pairs are there in each turn of double helix? 11402137

(a) 5 (b) 10

116.The amount of DNA/nucleus (in picogram) in carp liver cell is: 11402138

(a) 2.3 (b) 2.4

SELECTED FROM BOARD PAPERS

i) Enzymes, antibodies, hormones and hemoglobin are examples: (Board 2007)

(a) Ovular proteins 11402139
(b) Globular proteins

(d) Tough proteins

ii) Which is the most abundant carbohydrate in nature: (Board 2004) 11402140

(a) Starch (b) Glycogen

iii) Ribosomes are particles of: (Board 2005)

(a) Riboglyco protein 11402141

(b) Riboglyco lipid

(d) Ribonucleo lipid

iv) The cells which secrete their hormones are: (Board 2005) 11402142

(a) Blood Cells (b) Nephron Cells

v) Animals obtain carbohydrates mainly from: (Board 2007) 11402143

(a) Glycogen (b) Chitin

vi) A heterogeneous group of compound related to fatty acids is: (Board 2007) 11402144

(a) Proteins (b) Lipid

vii) Substance which on hydrolysis yield polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketone sub-units are: (Board 2008) 11402145

(a) Acylglycerols (b) Polypeptides

viii) Which of the following atom do not occurs in carbohydrates?

(Board 2013) 11402146

(a) Carbon (b) Hydrogen

Short Questions

Q1. Define biochemistry. 11402147

Q2. What is metabolism? 11402148

Q3. Differentiate between anabolic and catabolic reactions. 11402149

Q4. What are covalent bonds? 11402150

Q5. What are the most important organic compounds in living organisms? 11402151

CARBON

1) What is the basic element of organic compounds? 11402152

2) Why does carbon occupy the central position in the skeleton of life? Or 11402153

What makes carbon a favourable element?

WATER

1) What is medium of life? 11402154

2) What is the percentage of water in human tissues? 11402155

3) Why is water an excellent solvent for polar substances? 11402156

4) Non-polar organic molecules, such as fats, are insoluble in water. What is the advantage of this fact? 11402157

5) Define Specific heat capacity. (Board 2007) 11402158

6) What is heat of vaporization? (Board 2010) 11402159

7) What is the advantage of heat of vaporization? 11402160

8) What is the concentration of each of H⁺and OH^- ions in pure water at 25°C? 11402161

9) How does water protect as an effective lubricant? 11402162

CARBOHYDRATES

Q1. What does carbohydrate literally mean? 11402163

Q2. What is the general formula of carbohydrates? 11402164

Q3. How are carbohydrates chemically defined? 11402165

Q4. What are the major classes or groups of carbohydrates? 11402166

Q5. Differentiate between glycosidic and peptide bonds. 11402167

Q6. What monosaccharides are found in nature? 11402168

Q7. What trioses are intermediates in respiration and photosynthesis? 11402169

Q8. What are tetroses? 11402170

Q9. What are the most common monosaccharides? 11402171

Q10. What is the most important hexose from the biological point of view? 11402172

Q11. Differentiate between aldo-sugars and keto sugars. 11402173

Q12. What does happen to monosaccharides when in solution? Give examples. 11402174

Q13. Where is glucose present in free state? 11402175

Q14. What is normally the concentration of glucose in our blood? 11402176

Q15. Where is glucose found in combined form? Where is it naturally produced?

11402177

Q16. Why is the process of glucose synthesis by green plants called photosynthesis?

11402178

Q17. How much solar energy is used in the synthesis of 10g glucose and in which form it is stored? 11402179

Q18. What do you know about the taste of carbohydrates? 11402180

Q19. What do you know about the solubility of carbohydrates in water? 11402181

Q20. What are physiologically I mportant disaccharides? 11402182

Q21. What is sucrose? 11402183

Q22. What is glycosidic bond? 11402184

Q23. Define hydrolysis. 11402185

Q24. What is the effect of hydrolysis on oligosaccharides? 11402186

Q25. What are some biologically important polysaccharides? 11402187

Q26. Where is starch found? 11402188

Q27. What does happen to starch, cellulose and glycogen, on complete hydrolysis?

11402189

Q28. How many types of starches are there? 11402190

Q29. Differentiate between amylose and amylopectin starches. (Board 2012) 11402191

Q30. What colours are given by starch, glycogen and cellulose with iodine? 1402192

Q.31 Why is glycogen called animal starch?

11402193

Q32. Which is the most abundant carbohydrate in nature? Where is it found in pure form? 11402194

Q33. Cellulose is digested by the herbivores but not by humans. Why? 11402195

Q34.Sketch structures of ribofuranose and gluopyranose. 11402196

LIPIDS

Q1. What are lipids? 11402197

Q2. Write down the names of the solvents of lipids. 11402198

Q3. Why do lipids store double the amount of energy as compared to the same amount of any carbohydrate? 11402199

Q4. What are different classes of lipids? (Board 2007) 11402200

Q5. What are acylglycerols? 11402201

Q6. What is an ester? (Board 2006) 11402202

Q7. Differentiate between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids. (Board 2015) 11402203

Q8. How do fatty acids of animals differ from those of plants? 11402204

Q9. Compare the solubility and melting points of palmitic and butyric acids.

11402205

Q10. What is the effect of room temperature on fats? 11402206

Q11. What is the specific gravity of fats and oils? 11402207

Q12. What is the chemical nature of waxes? 11402208

Q13. What is the chemical nature of phospholipids? 11402209

Q14. Name the nitrogenous bases which are important components of phospholipids.

11402210

Q15. Where are phospholipids found? 11402211

Q16. Write the name and structure of one of the most common phospholipids.

(Board 2015) 11402212

Q17. What are terpenoids? 11402213

PROTEINS

Q1. What are the most abundant organic compounds to be found in cells? 11402214

Q2. What are proteins? 11402215

Q3. Give any two functions of proteins.

11402216

Q4. What is the number of amino acids in proteins? 11402217

Q5. How many types of amino acids occur in cells and how many are found in proteins? 11402218

Q6. What is alpha carbon in amino acids?

11402219

Q7. What is the general formula of amino acids? (Board 2005, 07, 13, 14) 11402220

Q8. How is glycylalanine formed? (Board 2007, 2008) 11402221

Q9. How are the specific properties of a protein determined? 11402222

Q10. What did F. Sanger conclude about insulin? 11402223

Q11. What is the composition of haemoglobin? 11402224

Q12. How is the size of a protein determined? 11402225

Q13. How many proteins are present in human body? 11402226

Q.14 Why is the arrangement of amino acids in a protein molecule highly specific for its proper functioning? 11402227

Q15. What is Primary structure of Protein? 11402228

Q16. What is Secondary structure of protein? 11402229

Q17. What is Tertiary structure of protein? 11402230

Q18. What is Quaternary structure of protein? 11402231

Q19. What are the two main types of secondary structure of proteins? 11402232

Q20. How is tertiary structure of protein maintained? 11402233

Q21. Give an example of quaternary structure of protein. 11402234

Q22. Why is it very difficult to classify proteins? 11402235

Q23. Classify proteins according to their structure. 11402236

Q24. Give the structure of fibrous proteins. (Board 2004, 2006, 2012) 11402237

Q25. Give examples of fibrous proteins. (Board 2006) 11402238

Q26. Give the structure of globular proteins. (Board 2006, 2012) 11402239

Q27. Give examples of globular proteins. 114021240

Q28. Give the characteristics of fibrous proteins. (Board 2004) 11402241

Q29.Draw a peptide linkage between glycine and alanine. (Board 2013) 11402242

Q30. Define peptide bond. (Board 2014) 11402243

Nucleic acids

Q1. From which cells were nucleic acids were isolated? 11402244

Q2. Why are nucleic acids given that name? 11402245

Q3. How many types of nucleic acids are there? 11402246

Q4. Why are these scientists famous for: i. Chargaff ii. Wilkins & Franklin iii. Watson and Crick 11402247

Q5. Where does DNA occur in cell? 11402248

Q6. Where is RNA present in the cell? 11402249

Q7. What are nucleic acids?

(Board 2007) 11402250

Q8. What are the subunits of a typical nucleotide? 11402251

Q9. What pentose sugar is found in nucleotides? (OR How ribonucleotide and deoxyribonucleotide differ in having pentose sugar?) 11402252

Q10. What nitrogenous bases are present in nucleic acids? 11402253

Q11. What is the position of attachment of nitrogenous base and phosphoric acid to pentose sugar in a typical nucleotide? 11402254

Q12. Differentiate between nucleoside and nucleotide. 11402255

Q13. Name a nucleotide used as an energy currency by the cell. 11402256

Q14. What kinds of nucleotides DNA is made up of? 11402257

Q15. What is polynucleotide chain? 11402258

Q16. What is NAD? 11402259

Q17. What is the amount of DNA in a cell? 11402260

Q18. How do RNA molecules occur?11402261

Q19. What is the length of tRNA? 11402262

Q20. What is the function of tRNA? (Board 2005) 11402263

Q21. What is the function of rRNA? 11402264

Q22. Define the transfer RNA and messenger RNA. (Board 2005) 11402265

Q23. What is the function of mRNA? 11402266

Q24. Describe the Watson and Crick model of DNA. 11402267

1) What are conjugated molecules?11402268

2) What are glycoproteins and glycolipids? 11402269

3) What are lipoproteins? 11402270

4) What are nucleohistones? Write its role. 11402271

Unit 3

ENZYMES

Objectives + Short Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Enzymes are the most important biologically active group of: 11403006

a) Carbohydrates b) Lipids

c) Proteins d) Nucleic acids

2. An enzyme without its co-factor is termed as: 11403007

a) Coenzyme b) Holoenzyme

c) Apoenzyme d) Prosthetic group

3. An activated enzyme consisting of polypeptide chain and a co-factor is known as: (Board 2013) 11403008

a) Coenzyme b) Holoenzyme

c) Apoenzyme d) Activator

4. Which statement about enzyme is not true? 11403009

a) They consist of proteins, with or without a non-protein part.

b) They change the rate of catalyzed reaction.

c) They are sensitive to heat.

d) They are non-specific in their action.

5. Lock and Key Model regarding the substrate and enzyme interaction was proposed in 1890 by: 11403010

a) Emil Fischer b) Koshland

c) Robert Koch d) Louis Pasteur

6. Any factor that can alter the chemistry and shape of an enzyme can affect its rate of: 11403011

a) Activity b) Hydrolysis

c) Catalysis d) Photolysis

7. If you add more substrate to already occurring enzymatic reaction and it has no effect on the rate of reaction. What is the term given for this situation? 11403012

a) Saturation b) Denaturation

c) Composition d) Inhibition

8. The rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction: 11403013

a) Is constant under all conditions

b) Decreases as substrate concentration increases

c) Cannot be measured

d) Can be reduced by inhibitors

9. Extreme changes in pH cause the bonds in the enzyme to break, resulting in the enzyme: 11403014

a) Inhibition b) Competition

c) Saturation d) Denaturation

10. 5.5 is the optimum pH value for the enzyme: 11403015

a) Arginase b) Sucrase

c) Enterokinase d) Amylase

11. Which of the following enzyme works efficiently alkaline pH? 11403016

a) Pepsin b) Sucrase

c) Salivary amylase d) Catalase

12. The optimum pH of the enzyme arginase is: (Board 2014) 11403017

a) 7.60 b) 9.00

c) 9.7 d) 2.00

13. The catalytic activity of an enzyme is restricted to its portion called: 11403018

a) Active site b) Passive site

c) Intermediate site d) Inhibiting site

14. The rate of reaction of enzyme directly depends upon: 11403019

a) Amount of enzyme

b) Nature of substrate present at a specific time at unlimited substrate concentration.

c) Maximum pH level

d) Low temperature

15. Koshland in 1959 proposed the modified form of: 11403020

a) Fluid mosaic model

b) Induce Fit model

c) Unit membrane model

d) Reflective index model

16. The reversible inhibitors usually constitute: 11403021

a) Strong linkage with enzyme

b) Weak linkage with enzyme

c) No linkage with enzyme

d) Medium linkage with enzyme

17. Enzymes are very _______ in their action.

11403022

a) General b) Specific

c) Precise d) Exact

18. An enzyme is a three dimensional ______ protein. 11403023

a) Fibrous b) Straight

c) Globular d) Branched

19. An enzyme and its substrate react with each other through definite charge bearing sites called_________ sites. 11403024

a) Catalytic b) Passive

c) Binding d) Active

20. Enzymes are the most important group of proteins which are biologically: 11403025

a) Active b) Inactive

c) Dynamic d) Energetic

21. The reactant called________ is attached to the active site of enzyme. 11403026

a) Food particle b) Substance

c) Substrate d) Product

22. If the non-protein part is covalently bonded to enzyme, it is known as a:

a) Coenzyme (Board 2007) 11403027

b) Co-factor

c) Holoenzyme

d) Prosthetic group

23. The active site of the enzyme is made up of two definite regions i.e., the binding site and the: 11403028

a) Non-binding site

b) Non-catalytic site

c) Inactive site

d) Catalytic site

24. On the basis of new evidences Induce Fit model was proposed by: (Board 2015) 11403029

a) Koshland b) Emil Fischer

c) Robert Koch d) Louis Pasteur

25. A chemical substance which can react (in place of substrate) with the enzyme but is not transformed into product(s) and thus blocks the active site 11403030

a) Inhibitor b) Accelerator

c) Retarder d) Reducer

26. For enzymes of human body _____°C is the optimum temperature. 11403031

a) 27 b) 17

c) 37 d) 47

27. If non-protein part is loosely attached to the protein part it is known as 11403032

a) Co-factor (Board 2005)

b) Coenzyme

c) Holoenzyme

d) Prosthetic group.

28. The enzymes are: 11403033

a) Fibrous proteins

b) Globular proteins

c) Angular proteins

d) Spherical proteins

29. Any enzyme reacts only with its specific: 11403034

a) Surface b) Product

c) Substrate d) Reactant

30. If the amount of enzyme is increased by two fold the reaction rate is: 11403035

a) Same b) Doubled

c) Four fold d) Three fold

31. At low concentration of substrate the reaction rate is directly proportional to the available: 11403036

a) Enzyme b) Reactant

c) Product d) Substrate

32. Extreme changes in pH cause the bonds in the enzyme to break, resulting in the enzyme: 11403037

a) Denaturation

b) Deceleration

c) Deconformation

d) Deconfiguration

33. All enzymes can work at their maximum rate at a specific temperature called:

a) Minimum temperature 11403038

b) Maximum temperature

c) Optimum temperature

d) Best temperature

34. Every enzyme functions most effectively over a narrow range of pH known as the:

11403039

a) Best pH b) Minimum pH

c) Maximum pH d) Optimum pH

35. Because of the structural similarity with the substrate, competitive inhibitors may be selected by the binding sites, but are not able to activate the: 11403040

a) Catalytic sites

b) Accelerating sites

c) Inactive sites d) Active sites

36. Some enzymes also have a non-protein part known as a cofactor, which is essential for the proper functioning of the: 11403041

a) Substrate b) Enzymes

c) Reactant d) Product

37. Any factor that can alter the chemistry and shape of an enzyme can affect its rate of: 11403042

a) Reaction b) Activation

c) Catalysis d) Both (b) & (c)

38. Reversible Inhibitors form weak linkages with the: 11403043

a) Enzyme b) Reactant
c) Product d) Substrate

39. Non-competitive Inhibitors form enzyme inhibitor complex at a point other than the: 11403044

a) Catalytic site b) Active site

c) Binding site d) Non-catalytic site

40. Inhibitors occupy the active sites by forming covalent bonds or they may physically block the active sites. 11403045

a) Reversible b) Irreparable

c) Reparable d) Irreversible

41. The cofactor usually acts as "bridge" between the: 11403046

a) Enzyme & substrate

b) Coenzyme & substrate

c) Enzyme & product

d) Cofactor & substrate

42. The binding site helps the enzyme in the recognition and binding of a proper substrate to produce an: 11403047

a) BS complex b) PS complex

c) RS complex d) ES complex

43. According to Lock and Key Model the active site is: (Board 2015) 11403048

a) Rigid structure

b) Soft structure

c) Flexible structure

d) Attractive structure

44. Heat provides activation energy and therefore, chemical reactions are accelerated at: 11403049

a) Low temperatures

b) Moderate temperatures

c) High temperatures

d) Both (a) and (c)

45. Some enzymes use metal-ions as co-factors like: 11403050

a) Mg²⁺ b) Fe²⁺

c) Cu²⁺ d) All the above

46. The detachable co-factor is known as an activator if it is: 11403051

a) Organic ion b) Non-ionic

c) Inorganic ion d) Non-polar

47. An enzyme with its coenzyme, or prosthetic group, removed is designated as: 11403052

a) Apoenzyme b) Holoenzyme

c) Hypoenzyme d) Prosoenzyme

48. Even for a minor change in pH, temperature and substrate concentration, enzymes are: 11403053

a) Insensitive b) Sensitive

c) Susceptible d) Receptive

49. The chemical reaction can be accelerated by an enzyme even in: 11403054

a) Small amounts

b) Moderate amounts

c) Large amounts

d) All of the above

50. The activation energy of the reactions is lowered by: 11403055

a) Coenzymes b) Substrate

c) Enzymes d) Product

51. By increasing the enzyme molecules, there is an increase in the number of: 11403056

a) Binding sites b) Active sites

c) Catalytic sites d) None of these

52. The ionization of the amino acids at the active site can be changed by a slight change in: 11403057

a) Temperature

b) Substrate concentration

c) Enzyme concentration

d) pH

53. Poisons, like cyanide, antibodies, anti metabolites and some drugs are examples of: 11403058

a) Enzymes b) Coenzymes

c) Inhibitors d) Holoenzymes

54. The optimum pH of Enterokinase is:

(Board 2007) 11403059

a) 1.50 b) 3.50

c) 5.50 d) 7.50

55. The optimum pH of Salivary amylase is: (Board 2006) 11403060

a) 2.80 b) 4.80

c) 6.80 d) 8.80

56. The optimum pH of Catalase is: 11403061

a) 2.50 b) 4.60

c) 5.70 d) 7.60

57. The optimum pH of Chymotrypsin is:

a) 7.00-8.00 b) 6.00-7.00 11403062

c) 5.00-6.00 d) 4.00-5.00

58. The optimum pH of Pancreatic lipase is:

(Board 2013) 11403063

a) 7.00 b) 9.00

c) 5.00 d) 3.00

59. The optimum pH of Pepsin is: 11403064

a) 2.00 b) 4.00

c) 6.00 d) 8.00

60. The optimum pH of Sucrase is:

(Board 2014,15) 11403065

a) 2.50 b) 4.50

c) 6.50 d) 8.50

61. They check the reaction by occupying the active sites or destroying the globular structure: (Board 2014) 11403066

a) Irreversible inhibitors

b) Reversible inhibitors

c) Competitive inhibitors

d) None competitive inhibitors

Short Questions

Q1. What are enzymes and coenzymes? (Board 2012) 11403067

Q2. What is the difference between substrate and products? 11403068

Q3. How does an enzyme and it substrate react? 11403069

Q4. What is active site? 11403070

Q5. How many regions are present in active site? 11403071

Q6. What is a co-factor? (Board 2014) 11403072

Q7. Define activator. 11403073

Q8. Define holoenzyme. (Board 2007, 13, 14) 11403074

Q9. What is Apoenzyme?(Board 2007,14) 11403075

Q10. Who proposed Lock and Key Model? 11403076

Q11. What is Induced Fit Model?

(Board 2015)11403077

Q12. Which factor can affect rate of catalysis of enzyme? 11403078

Q13. What would happen if amount of enzyme is increased by two fold? 11403079

Q14. What is the optimum temperature for enzymes of human body? 11403080

Q15. How do extreme changes in pH affect enzyme? 11403081

Q16. Differentiate between irreversible and reversible inhibitors. (Board 2005, 07, 14) 11403082

Q17. Differentiate between Competitive and Non-competitive inhibitors.

(Board 2014) 11403083

Q.18 Define optimum temperature of enzyme.

(Board 2006) 11403084

Q.19 Define optimum pH of enzyme. (Board 2006, 2015) 11403085

Q.20 What is the difference between enzyme and proenzyme? 11403086

Q.21 Define Catalysis. 11403087

Q.22 What is an inhibitor? OR Define inhibitors of Enzymes. (Board 2007, 10) 11403088

Q.23 What is an optimal or optimum value of a factor during reaction? 11403089

Q.24 How does an Enzyme accelerate a metabolic reaction? (Board 2007, 14) 11403090

Q.25 How do irreversible inhibitors check the reaction rate of enzymes? OR

What are irreversible inhibitors?

(Board 2007, 14) 11403091

Q.26 How does Enzyme concentration affect the rate of enzyme action?

(Board 2007, 08) 11403092

Q.27 How does low or high temperature affect enzyme activities? (Board 2007) 11403093

Q.28 Differentiate between prosthetic group and coenzyme. (Board 2013, 15) 11403094

THE CELL

Unit 4

Objectives + Short Questions

[

Multiple Choice Questions

1. The cell was discovered by: 11404024

a) Lamarck b) Oken

c) Robert Hooke d) Robert Brown

2. The cell nucleus was discovered by:11404025

a) Virchow b) Robert Brown

c) Robert Hooke d) Schwann

3. The cell theory was formulated by: 11404026 a) Schleiden and Weismann (Board 2014)

b) Pasteur and Schwann

c) Schleiden and Shan

d) Schleiden and Schwann

4. In electron microscope the resolution of microscope ranges between: 11404027

a) 2-6 Angstrom b) 2-4 Angstrom

c) 3-6 Angstrom d) 1-4 Angstrom

5. Contraction and relaxation are the characteristics of: 11404028

a) Muscle cells b) Nerve cells

c) Gland cells d) Tendons

6. The photosynthetic cells of green plants are also called: 11404029

a) Meristematic cells

b) Parenchymatous cells

c) Sclerenchymatous cells

d) Chlorenchymatous cells

7. The surplus food is stored in: 11404030

a) Chlorenchymatous cells

b) Parenchymatous cells

c) Photosynthetic cells

d) Meristematic cells

8. Growth and development of plant is the function of: 11404031

a) Meristematic cells

b) Chlorenchymatous cells

c) Parenchymatous cells

d) Sclerenchymatous cells

9. Omnis cellula-e-cellula was hypothesized by: 11404032

a) Schleiden

b) Rudolph Virchow

c) Louis Pasteur

d) Lorenz Oken

10. The biggest cell in the world is the egg of:

a) Ostrich b) Kiwi 11404033

c) Turtle d) Elephant

11. 60-80% of the chemical component of the cell membrane is the: 11404034

a) Protein b) Lipid

c) Carbohydrate d) Nucleic acid

12. The intake of materials by the animal cells by forming vacuoles is called: 11404035

a) Pinocytosis b) Endocytosis

c) Phagocytosis d) Mitosis

13. The primary cell wall is composed of cellulose and some deposition of pectin and: 11404036

a) Lignin b) Silica

c) Hemicellulose d) Chitin

14. Cellulose molecules are arranged in a:

a) Random arrangement 11404037

b) Peculiar arrangement

c) Criss-cross arrangement

d) Straight fibres arrangement

15. Prokaryotic cell wall lacks: 11404038

a) Lignin

b) Cellulose

c) Hemicellulose

d) All of above

16. Prokaryotic cell wall is formed of:

a) Murein 11404039

b) Peptidoglycan

c) Polysaccharide plus shorter chains of amino acids

d) All of above

17. Fungal cell wall is made up of: 11404040

a) Cutin b) Pectin

c) Chitin d) Cellulose

18. All the living content of a eukaryotic cell is called: 11404041

a) Protoplasm b) Nucleoplasm

c) Cytoplasm d) Cytosol

19. Cytoplasm is a site for certain metabolic processes such as: 11404042

a) Krebs cycle b) Glycolysis

c) Calvin cycle d) Glyoxylate cycle

20. The free floating cell organelles move about in the cytoplasm due to cytoplasmic: a) Oceanic movement 11404043

b) Streaming movements

c) Wavy movements

d) To and fro movements

21. The rough surface endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the synthesis of: 11404044

a) Lipids b) Proteins

c) Carbohydrates d) Glycolipids

22. Detoxification of harmful drugs is the function of: 11404045

a) RER

b) SER

c) Both RER and SER

d) Mitochondria

23. SER also helps in metabolism of a number of different types of molecules, particularly: 11404046

a) Carbohydrates b) Proteins

c) Lipids d) None of above

24. Palade was the first person to study the: 11404047

a) Lysosomes b) Ribosomes

c) Polysomes d) Peroxisomes

25. Ribosomes are chemically composed of:

a) Only protein 11404048

b) Ribonucleoprotein

c) RNA and protein

d) Both (b) and (c) are correct

26. A group of ribosomes attached to mRNA are known as: (Board 2015) 11404049

a) Centrosome b) Polysome

c) Nucleosome d) Peroxisome

27. New ribosomes are assembled in the:

a) Nucleolus 11404050

b) Cytoplasm

c) Endoplasmic reticulum

d) Lysosomes

28. Golgi apparatus was discovered by Golgi in: 11404051

a) 1889 b) 1896

c) 1898 d) 1888

29. Which of the following statements about ribosomes is correct? 11404052

a) They are chemically composed of DNA and protein.

b) They are enclosed in their own membrane.

c) They arc concentrated in the cisternal space of RER.

d) They arc attached to the cistcrnal surface.

30. Conversion of proteins and lipids into glycoproteins and glycolipids occurs in:

a) Golgi apparatus 11404053

b) SER

c) Chloroplast

d) Mitochondria

31. Golgi apparatus has two ends: 11404054

a) First face and second

b) Forming face and deforming face

c) Forming face and maturation face

d) Proximal face and distal face

32. Golgi complex is concerned with: 11404055

a) Cell eating

b) Power house of cell

c) Cell development

d) Cell secretions

33. The proteins or enzymes which have to be transported out of the cell pass through the: 11404056

a) Endoplasmic reticulum

b) Golgi complex

c) Vacuoles

d) Mitochondria

34. Lysosomes were first isolated in 1949 by: (Board 2014) 11404057

a) De Duve b) De Veries

c) Tay-Sach d) Palade

35. Which type of cells would probably be most appropriate to study lysosomes?

a) Mesophyll cells of leaf 11404058

b) Nerve cells

c) Phagocytic white blood cells

d) Muscle cells

36. Lysosomal sacs are rich in: 11404059

a) Acid oxidase and hydrolytic enzymes

b) Reductase and oxidases only

c) Acid phosphatase and proteolytic enzymes

d) Acid phosphatase and hydrolytic enzymes

37. Which of the following pairs of structure-function is mismatched? 11404060

a) Ribosome; protein synthesis

b) Nucleolus; ribosome production

c) Golgi; muscle contraction

d) Lysosome, intracellular digestion

38. The lysosomes which eat parts of its own cell are known as: 11404061

a) Autophagosomes

b) Primary Lysosome

c) Secondary Lysosome

d) Both (a) and (c)

39. The digestive vacuoles and autophagosomes are also known as: 11404062

a) Primary lysosomes

b) Secondary lysosomes

c) Phagocytic lysosomes

d) Both (a) and (b)

40. Several congenital diseases have been found to be due to accumulation within the cell of substances such as glycogen or various: 11404063

a) Lipoproteins

b) Glycolipids

c) Glycoproteins

d) Lipopolysaccharides

41. Which disease is because of absence of an enzyme that is involved in the catabolism of lipids: 11404064

a) Glycogenosis type II b) Cancer

c) Microcephaly d) Tay-Sach's

42. Mental retardation and even death may be caused if the brain cells accumulate:11404065

a) Glycogen b) Proteins

c) Lipids d) Starch

43. In the disease glycogenosis Type II, glycogen fills the liver and: 11404066

a) Pancreas b) Lungs

c) Kidneys d) Muscles

44. Lysosomes also release enzymes for extra cellular: 11404067

a) Development b) Digestion

c) Contraction d) Secretion

45. Peroxisomes in 1965 were isolated by:

a) Golgi and Coworkers 11404068

b) De Duve and Coworkers

c) Palade and Coworkers

d) Sanger and Coworkers

46. The cell organelles enriched with oxidative enzymes such as peroxidase, catalase and glycolic acid oxidase is called: 11404069

a) Polysome b) Glyoxisome

c) Centrosome d) Peroxisome

47. Peroxisomes have also been found in protozoa, yeast and many cell types of higher: 11404070

a) Animals b) Algae

c) Fungi d) Plants

48. The name peroxisome was applied because this organelle is specifically involved in formation and decomposition of ______ in the cell. 11404071

a) Nitrogen peroxide

b) Calcium peroxide

c) Hydrogen peroxide

d) Sodiun Hydroxide

49. Glyoxisomes are most abundant in germinating seedlings where their enzymes convert stored fatty acids to:

a) Glycerols b) Oxalate 11404072

c) Succinate d) Fumarate

50. In lipld-rich seeds, glyoxisomes are the sites for breakdown of fatty acids to:

a) Succinate b) Glycerol 11404073

c) Fats d) Proteins

51. Glyoxisome is absent in lipid-poor seed such as: 11404074

a) Castor bean b) Pea

c) Mung d) Peanut

52. The plant vacuole is the major contributor to the: 11404075

a) Storage b) Turgor

c) Excretion d) Growth

53. The microtubules of the cytoskeletons are composed of the protein culled: 11404076

a) Tubulin b) Actin

c) Myosin d) Tropomyosin

54. Cilia, flagella and centrloles are special assemblies of: 11404077

a) Microfilaments

b) Mitcrotubules

c) Intermediate filaments

d) Microfibers

55. Cyclosis and amoeboid movements are because of: 11404078

a) Microtubules

b) Intermediate filaments

c) Microfilaments

d) Microfibers

56. Centrioles are not found in: 11404079

a) Cells of lower plants

b) Cells of lower animals

c) Cells of higher plants

d) Cells of higher animals

57. Centrioles are made up of nine microtubules: 11404080

a) Duplet b) Triplet

c) Octet d) Tetrads

58. Centrioles play important role in the location of furrowing during cell division, and in the formation of: 11404081

a) Flagella

b) Cilia

c) Cilia and flagella

d) Pili

59. Mitochondria are also known as: 11404082

a) Store house

b) Information house

c) Power house

d) Exporting house

60. Mitochondria are composed of: 11404083 a) DNA only

b) Enzymes, coenzymes, inorganic and organic salts

c) Protein only

d) All of above

61. Under compound microscope, mitochondria appear to be: 11404084

a) Filaments

b) Vesicles

c) Vesicles, rods or Filaments

d) Rods

62. Mitochondria are found in: 11404085

a) Prokaryotic cells only

b) Both prokaryotic & eukaryotic cells

c) Eukaryotic cells only

d) In all of the above

63. Mitochondria also contain: 11404086

a) DNA and RNA

b) DNA and protein

c) RNA and ribosomes

d) DNA and ribosomes

64. Membrane bounded mostly pigment containing bodies in the cells are called:

a) Chloroplasts 11404087

b) PIastids

c) Chromoplasts

d) Both chloroplast & chromoplast

65. Chlorophyll has Mg as central atom while haem has: 11404088

a) Ca b) Na

c) K d) Fe

66. The chloroplasts have grana embedded in the: 11404089

a) Matrix b) Thylakoid

c) Intergrana d) Stroma

67. Under electron microscope a chloroplast shows three main components viz. the envelope, the stroma and the: 11404090

a) Matrix b) Intergranum

c) Thylakoid d) Granum

68. Stroma is a fluid in the chloroplast which surrounds the: 11404091

a) Granum b) Stroma

c) Matrix d) Thylakoids

69. The stroma of the chloroplast contains some ribosomes, a small circular DNA and: 11404092

a) Proteins b) Lipids

c) Sugars d) Starches

70. Which of the following is true about chloroplasts? 11404093

a) Found in underground parts of plants.

b) Help in pollination and dispersal of seeds

c) Self-replicating organelles

d) Involved in protein synthesis

71. Which type of cell would probably be most appropriate to study chloroplasts?

a) Parenchymatous cell 11404094

b) Photosynthetic cell

c) Meristematic cell

d) Xylem cell

72. Which statement about plastids is true? 11404095

a) They are the powerhouses of cell

b) They are surrounded by a single membrane

c) They contain DNA and ribosomes.

d) They are found in all organisms

73. On the layers of thylakoids chlorophyll molecules are arranged and that is why granum appear to be: 11404096

a) Yellowish Red b) Greyish white

c) Red d) Green

74. The plastids found in the cells of petals of the flowers and the fruits are the: 11404097

a) Cytochromes b) Chloroplasts

c) Phytochromes d) Chromoplasts

75. Which one help in pollination and dispersal of seeds: 11404098

a) Chloroplast b) Chromoplast

c) Leucoplast d) Phytochrome

76. Leucoplasts are colourless plastids and serve to store: 11404099

a) Lipids b) Food

c) Protein d) All of above

77. Nucleus can be seen in a: 11404100

a) Young cell

b) Non-dividing cell

c) Germinating cell

d) Dividing cell

78. One of the following is not a double membranous structure: 11404101

a) Chloroplast b) Mitochondrion

c) Vacuole d) Nucleus

79. Nucleus contains soluble sap called:11404102

a) Protoplasm b) Cytoplasm

c) Nucleoplasm d) Nuclear sap

80. The nuclear pores allow exchange of materials between the nucleus and the:

11404103

a) Protoplasm b) Nucleoplasm

c) Cytoplasm d) Cytosol

81. Erythrocytes have: 11404104

a) Only 3 or 4 pores / nucleus

b) Only 4 or 5 pores / nucleus

c) Only 2 or 4 pores / nucleus

d) Only 5 or 6 pores / nucleus

82. Egg cell has: 11404105

a) About 25,000 pores per nucleus

b) About 35,000 pores per nucleus

c) About 30,000 pores per nucleus

d) About 3,000 pores per nucleus

83. What statement about nucleolus is not true? 11404106

a) Without membranous boundary

b) Hereditary centre

c) Composed of two regions

d) Synthesizing site for rRNA

84. What statement about the nuclear envelope is not true? 11404107

a) Its inner membrane bears ribosomes.

b) RNA and some proteins pass through it.

c) It is a double membrane, structure.

d) It has pores.

85. Chimpanzee has the number of chromosomes: 11404108

a) 44 b) 46

c) 64 d) 48

86. Gametes are also called: 11404109

a) Sperms b) Gonads

c) Eggs d) Germ cells

87. Drosophila melanogaster is the biological name of: 11404110

a) Butterfly b) Fruit fly

c) Housefly d) Tsetse fly

88. The number of chromosomes in normal body cells are: 11404111

a) Haploid b) Diploid

c) Monoploid d) Triploid

89. Prokaryotes include blue-green algae and: 11404112

a) Viruses b) Bacteria

c) Protozoans d) Protists

90. Eukaryotes include animals, plants, fungi and: 11404113

a) Protista b) Monera

c) Bacteria d) Viruses

91. The entire cell wall of prokaryotic cell is often regarded as a single huge molecule known as: 11404114

a) Polysaccharides

b) Lipoprotein

c) Murein

d) Cellulose

92. The prokaryotic cell can divide by: 11404115 a) Multiple fission b) Mitosis

c) Meiosis d) Binary fission

93. The sedimentation coefficient of prokaryotic ribosome is: 11404116

a) 80S b) 30S

c) 50S d) 70S

94. Perhaps the most distinctive feature of prokaryotic cell is its: 11404117

a) Cell membrane

b) Hereditary material

c) Ribosomes d) Cell wall

95. Organisms possessing prokaryotic cells are called: 11404118

a) Mononucleate

b) Eukaryotes

c) Unicellular

d) Prokaryotes

96. Centromere is the place on the chromosome where during cell division are attached: 11404119

a) Muscle fibres b) Spindle fibres

c) Nerve fibres d) Protein fibres

97. Each chromosome consists of two identical chromatids at the beginning of cell division which are held together at:

11404120

a) Myomere b) Centrosome

c) Centromere d) Central sap

98. Nucleus contains chromatin network and soluble sap called: 11404121

a) Cytoplasm b) Nucleoplasm

c) Protoplasm d) Nuclear sap

99. Ribosomes and DNA are also present in:

11404122

a) Mitochondria b) Golgi complex

c) Endoplasmic reticulum

d) Lysosomes

100. The inner membrane of mitochondria forms infoldings, called cristae into the inner chamber called mitochondrial: 11404123

a) Stroma b) Mitochondrial

c) Medium d) Matrix

101. Long, unbranched, slender tubulin protein structures are: 11404124

a) Microfilaments

b) Intermediate filaments

c) Microtubules

d) All of above

102. The carbohydrates, lipids and proteins synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum are modified as glycolipid and glycoprotein within: 11404125

a) Golgi complex b) Lysosomes

c) Peroxisomes d) Glyoxisomes

103. Cilia, flagella, basal bodies and centrioles are derived from special assemblies of:

a) Microfilaments 11404126

b) Microtubules

c) Intermediate filaments

d) All of above

104. The enzymes of glyoxylate cycle are located in the: 11404127

a) Peroxisomes b) Glyoxisomes

c) Ribosomes d) IYSOSOMES .

105. The attachment of two units of ribosome is controlled by the presence of: 11404128

a) Ca⁺⁺ b) Mg⁺⁺

c) Co⁺⁺ d) Fe⁺⁺

106. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the synthesis of: 11404129

a) Lipids b) Carbohydrates

c) Proteins d) Vitamins

107. The material present in endoplasmic reticulum is separated from the cytoplasmic materials by the spherical or tubular membranes, called: 11404130

a) Cristae b) Cisternae

c) Both a & b d) Lamellae

108. Fungal cell wall contains: 11404131

a) pectin b) silica

c) chitin d) lignin

109. The strengthening material of prokaryotic cell wall is: 11404132

a) Peptidoglycan b) Murein

c) cellulose d) both a & b

110. A true wall that develops in newly growing cells is: 11404133

a) Primary wall b) Secondary wall

c) Middle lamella d) All of the above

111. The middle lamella is first to be formed in between: 11404134

a) primary walls

b) secondary walls

c) tertiary walls

d) quaternary walls

112. When the cell dies, the cell wall persists which shows that cell wall is: 11404135

a) Living b) non-living

c) rigid d) soft

113. Cell wall is secreted by the: 11404136

a) Nucleoplasm b) Protoplasm

c) Centrioles d) Glyoxisomes

114. The cells which store surplus food in plants are: 11404137

a) Sclerenchymatous cells

b) Chlorenchymatous cells

c) Parenchymatous cells

d) Collenchymatous cells

115. The cells which carry out photosynthesis are: 11404138

a) Sclerenchymatous cells

b) Chlorenchymatous cells

c) Parenchymatous cells

d) Collenchymatous cells

116. The cells which give support to the plant are: 11404139

a) Sclerenchymatous cells

b) Chlorenchymatous cells

c) Parenchymatous cells

d) Collenchymatous cells

117. The cells which transport food in plants are: 11404140

a) Phloem cells b) Xylem cells

c) Pith cells d) Cortex cells

118. Red blood cells carry: 11404141

a) Hydrogen b) Carbon

c) Nitrogen d) Oxygen

119. What is the reason for the separation of various organelles in different layer in a test tube affer centrifugation? 11404141

a) Size of organelles

b) Weight of organelle

c) Density of medium

d) All of these

120. In Tay-Sachs diseas, there is absence of enzyme that is involved in: 11404142

a) Anabolism of carbohydrates

b) Catabolism of lipids

c) Metabolism of proteins

d) Anabolism of lipids

121. Who presented the theory of common origin? 11404143

a) August Weismann

b) Rudolf Virchow

c) Lorenz Oken

d) Robert Brown

122. A non-viscous colloidal solution is called: 11404144

a) Sol b) Gel

c) Cytosol d) Stroma

123. Which organelle is self-replicating body? 11404145

a) Ribosomes b) Lysosomes

c) Chloroplast d) Vacoule

124. Rudolf Virchow presented theory of:

11404146

a) Biogenesis b) Abiogenesis

c) Common origin d) Micrographia

125. Gel is a ______ colloidal solution of cytoplasm. 11404147

a) Viscous b) Aviscous

c) true d) homogenous

SELECTED FROM BOARD PAPERS

i. The number of chromosomes in fruit fly, Drosophila melanogaster, is 11404148 (Board 2006)

(a) 16 (b) 26

ii. In 1831, the presence of nucleus in the cell was reported by: (Board 2007) 11404149

(a) Robert Koch

(b) Robert Hooke

(d) Robert Whittaker

iii. The cell theory was finally formulated by: (Board 2004) 11404150

(a) Sameer & Shamshair

(b) Schleiden & Schwann

(d) Watson & Crick

iv. Membrane bounded green pigment containing bodies present in the cells are called as: (Board 2007) 11404151

(a) plastids (b) chloroplasts

v. The fluid which surrounds the thylakoid is called: (Board 2005) 11404152

(a) matrix (b) stroma

vi. The cells which secrete their hormones are: (Board 2005) 11404153

(a) blood cells (b) nerve cells

vii. Resolution power of a typical microscope is: (Board 2004, 2015) 11404154

(a) 1.0 m (b) 2.0 m

viii. Stroma is fluid in the chloroplast which surrounds: (Board 2005) 11404155

(a) Granum (b) Intergranum (c) Thylakoids (d) both a & b

ix. Which of the following processes causes substances to move across the membranes without the expenditure of cellular energy: (Board 2007) 11404156

(a) Diffusion

(b) Active transport

(d) None of these

x. Tay-Sach’s disease results due to accumulation in brain cells. (Board 2008, 2013)

11404157

(a) Mg⁺⁺ (b) Glucose

Short Questions

Emergence of Cell Theory

Q.1 Define cell theory. 11404158

Q.2 Who finally formulated cell theory?

11404159

Q.3 What is the contribution of Robert Hooke in the discovery of cell? 11404160

Q.4 What is the composition of cell or plasma membrane? 11404161

Q.5 What is the importance of work of Robert Brown? 11404162

Q.6 Who said "omnis cellula-e-cellula"? (L.B-2012) 11404163

Q.7 What was the work of Jean Baptist de-Lamarck? 11404164

Q.8 What was the hypothesis of Rudolph Virchow? 11404165

Q.9 What is the work of Lorenz Oken?

11404166

Q.10 What did Schwann and Schleiden find about the parts of cell? 11404167

Q.11 How did Louis Pasteur (1862) supply experimental proof for Virchow's hypothesis? 11404168

Q.12 What did August Weismann (1880) say about the cell? 11404169

Q.13 Define the cell. 11404170

Q.14 Define the term “resolution of eye”.

(Board 2012) 11404171

Q.1 What is the function of muscle, nerve and gland cells? 11404172

Q.2 What is the function of red blood and stomach cells? 11404173

Q.3 What is the function of xylem and phloem? 11404174

Q.4 What is the function of sclerenchymatous, chlorenchymatous and parenchymatous cells? 11404175

Q.1 How much water is present in cytoplasm? 11404176

Q.2 What is the most important function of the cytoplasm? 11404177

Q.3 What is cell fractionation? 11404178

(Board 2013)

Q.4 How big could be the eukaryotic cell? 11404179

Q.5 How many metres are there in one µm? 11404180

Q.1 Why is cell membrane called differentially selectively permeable membrane? (Board 2013, 14) 11404181

Q.2 Define endocytosis. 11404182

Q.3 What was generally believed about the composition of plasma or cell membrane? 11404183

Q.4 Define active transport. 11404184

Q.5 Differentiate between phagocytosis and pinocytosis. 11404185

Q.6 What does lie inner to cell membrane? 11404186

Q.7 What is cytosol? 11404187

Q.8 What is true solution? 11404188

Q.9 What is colloidal solution? 11404189

Q.10 What is unit membrane? 11404190

Q.11 Give two functions of cell membrane. 11404191

Q.12 How does movement of materials take place through cell membrane? 11404192

Q.13 What is the function of cytoplasm? (Board 2015) 11404193

Q.1 Which part of the cell secretes cell wall? 11404194

Q.2 What does show that cell wall is non-living? 11404195

Q.3 Name the different layers of cell wall. 11404196

Q.4 Where does middle lamella be formed? 11404197

Q.5 What is the arrangement of cellulose in primary wall? 11404198

Q.6 Which is the true wall in cell wall? 11404199

Q.7 What is the chemical composition of secondary wall? 11404200

Q.8 What is the composition of primary wall? 11404201

Q.9 How does plant cell wall differ from those of prokaryotic and fungal cell walls? 11404202

Q.10 What is the function of cell wall? 11404203

Q.11 Is there any similarity between bacterial and plant cell wall? 11404204

Q.1 How many morphological forms of endoplasmic reticulum are present? What are these? 11404205

Q.2 What is endoplasmic reticulum?11404205

Q.3 Which endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the synthesis of proteins and lipids metabolism? 11404206

Q.4 Give at least two functions of endoplasmic reticulum? 11404207

Q.5 Give three functions of smooth endoplasmic reticulum. (Board 2014) 11404208

Q.1 What are Ribosomes? 11404209

Q.2 Which ions control the attachment of two units of ribosome? 11404210

Q.3 Where do the new ribosomes come from? 11404211

Q.4 Which is the factory of ribosome and protein synthesis? 11404212

Q.5 Why are eukaryotic ribosomes said to be ribonucleoprotein particles? 11404213

Q.6 Which RNA is present in ribosome?

Q.7 What is the function of ribosomes?

Q.8 What are subunits of eukaryotic ribosomes? 11404215

Q.9 How do ribosomes of prokaryotes differ from those of eukaryotes? 11404216

Q.1 State various structural modifications in a cell involved in secretions. 11404217

Q.2 Who discovered Golgi apparatus? What is golgi apparatus? 11404218

Q.3 What is the function of golgi complex or apparatus? 11404219

Q.4 Where are glycolipids and glycoproteins formed? 11404220

Q.5 What are cisternae? (Board 2014) 11404221

Q.1 What are lysosomes? 11404222

Q.2 What happens in the cell when any foreign object that gains entry into the cell? 11404223

Q.3 How does autophagy help in converting a tadpole larva into an adult amphibian? 11404224

Q.4 Who isolated lysosomes? (Board 2010) 11404225

Q.5 What is the cause of Tay-Sach's disease? 11404226

Q.6 What are storage diseases? 11404227

(Board 2015)

Q.7 How are storage diseases caused? 11404228

Q.8 What does happen in Glycogenosis type II disease? (Board 2014) 11404229

Q.9 What is the effect of accumulation of lipids in brain cells? 11404230

Q.10 Give two functions of Lysosomes. 11404231

Q.11 What is primary lysosome? 11404232

Q.12 What are secondary lysosomes?11404233

Q.13 Define Autophagosomes. 11404233

Q.14 What is Autophagy? 11404234

Q.15 What do you know about the intracellular digestion? 11404235

Q.16 What do you know about the extracellular digestion? 11404236

Q.1 What is the diameter of peroxisomes? 11404237

Q.2 Where are glyoxisomes most abundantly found? 11404238

Q.3 What is the function of vacuoles in plants? 11404239

Q.4 What is the fun`ctional difference between peroxisomes and glyoxisomes? 11404240

Q.5 The enzymes of which cycle are located in the glyoxisomes? 11404241

Q.6 What are the sites for breakdown of fatty acids to succinate in seeds rich in lipids? 11404242

Q.7 In which cells vacuoles are large and abundant? 11404243

Q.8 Who isolated peroxisomes? 11404244

Q.9 With which enzymes peroxisomes are enriched? 11404245

Q.10 Why was name peroxisome applied? 11404246

Q.11 Name the organelle which is present only during a short period in the germination of the lipid-rich seed. 11404247

Q.1 Which organisms have centrioles? 11404248

Q.2 What is cytoskeletal fabric formed of? 11404249

Q.3 What are microfilaments? 11404250

Q.4 What is the location of centrioles in cell and what is their role? 11404251

Q.5 What is the function of centrioles? 11404252

Q.6 What is the role of intermediate filaments? 11404253

Q.7 What are the main proteins that are present in cytoskeleton? 11404254

Q.8 Which cell organelles are derived from microtubules? 11404255

Q.1 What are F1 particles? 11404256

Q.2 List the processes blocked by mitochondrial failure in a cell. 11404257

Q.3 What is the difference between cristae and cisternae? 11404258

Q.4 What is the indication that some proteins are synthesized in mitochondria? 11404259

Q.5 Why is mitochondrion power house of the cell? 11404260

Q.1 What are plastids? 11404261

Q.2 What are the main types of plastids? 11404262

Q.3 What are chloroplasts? 11404263

Q.4 How does the central atom of chlorophyll and haem differ? 11404264

Q.5 What are the main components of chloroplasts seen under electron microscope? 11404265

Q.6 How grana are interconnected? 11404266

Q.7 What is granum? 11404267

Q.8 How many thylakoids are present in a granum? 11404268

Q.9 What is the function of chloroplasts? 11404269

Q.10 What is the shape and size of chloroplasts? 11404270

Q.11 What are thylakoids? 11404271

Q.1 What is the shape of nucleus? 11404272

Q.2 When is nucleus of the cell visible? 11404273

Q.3 What does nucleus contain? 11404274

Q.4 What does nucleus consist of? 11404275

Q.5 Name different types of RNAs. 11404276

Q.6 What do you mean by multinucleate cells? 11404277

Q.7 How do the free floating cell organelles e.g., mitochondria move about in cytoplasm? 11404278

Q.8 What does allows the exchange of materials between the nucleus and the cytoplasm? 11404279

Q.9 What is the number of nuclear pores in differentiated cell such as erythrocytes? 11404280

Q.10 What are chromosomes? 11404281

Q.11 What is centromere? 11404282

Q.12 What will happen if a chromosome loses its centromere? 11404283

Q.13 How many chromosomes are present in man, frog, chimpanzee, fruit fly, Drosophila melanogaster, onion, potato and garden pea? 11404284

Q.14 How does chromosome number vary in normal and germ cells? 11404285

Q.15 How many chromosomes are present in Human and Drosophila sperms and eggs? 11404286

Q.16 What is the function of nuclear pores? 11404287

Q.17 What is nucleolus? 11404288

What is the major difference between eukaryotes and prokaryotes? 11404289

Q.1 How does cell divide in prokaryotes? 11404290

Q.2 What are membrane bound structures or organelles? 11404291

Q.3 What is the composition of cell wall of prokaryotic cell? 11404292

Q.4 How many types of cells are divided into? 11404293

Q.5 What is Peptidoglycan or Murein? 11404294

Q.6 Define Eukaryotic cell. 11404295

Q.7 What are Prokaryotic cells? 11404296

Q.8 What is Succulus? 11404297

Q.1 What is polysome? (Board 2008) 11404298

Q.2 Differentiate between chromoplasts and leucoplasts. (Board 2006, 13) 11404299

Q.3 What is stroma? (Board 2007) 11404300

Q.4 What is fluid mosaic model? (Board 2007) 11404301

Q.5 What are cytoplasm and nucleoplasm? (Board 2005) 11404302

Q.6 What are peroxisomes?

(Board 2006, 2015) 11404303

Q.7 What are the salient features of Cell Theory? (Board 2006, 14) 11404304

Q.8 What are two models of membrane structure with respect to location of Lipid and Protein? (Board 2007) 11404305

Q.9 What is the role of mitochondria? (Board 2007) 11404306

Q.10 Compare microtubules with microfilaments. (Board 2008) 11404307

Unit 5

THE VARIETY OF LIFE

Objectives + Short Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

EXERCISE

1. The enzyme involved in viral replication are synthesized: 11405017

a) on the viral ribosomes

b) on the interior surface of viral membrane

c) by the host cell

d) on the interior surface of viral coat

2. A virion is a: 11405018

a) Virus b) Viral protein

c) Viral lysozyme d) Viral gene

3. An isolated virus is not considered living, since it: 11405019

a) separates into two inert parts

b) cannot metabolize

c) rapidly loses its genome

d) is coated with an air tight shield

4. In the lytic cycle of a bacteriophage, the host DNA is: 11405020

a) Replicated

b) Turned off by a protein coat

c) Digested into its nucleotides

d) Turned on by removal of a protein coat

5. In the lysogenic cycle, the DNA of a bacteriophage: 11405021

a) Joins the bacterial chromosome

b) attaches to the inner surface of the host membrane

c) is immediately degraded when it enters the host

d) goes directly to the host's ribosome for translation

6. Temperate phage may exist as: 11405022

a) Prophage b) Capsid (Board 2014)

c) Viroid d) Retrovirus

7. Phylogeny describes a species: 11405023

a) morphological similarities with other species

b) evolutionary history

c) reproductive compatibilities with other species

d) geographical distribution

8. In the binomial system of taxonomy, developed during the 18th century by

C. Linnaeus, the first word of an organism's name is its: 11405024

a) Species b) Genus

c) Race d) Family

9. In the five-kingdom system of classification developed by Robert Whittaker, member of the kingdom Plantae are autotrophic, eukaryotic and:

a) Multicellular 11405025

b) Motile

c) either unicellular or multiceliular

d) have sexual reproduction

10. Five kingdom of classification proposed by Margulis and Schwartz is not based on:

a) Genetics 11405026

b) cellular organization

c) nucleic acid

d) mode of nutrition

11. The common name of Allium cepa is:

a) Piyaz b) Bathu 11405027

c) Amaltas d) Chana

12. Arrange the following in order of increasing group size beginning with the smallest family, kingdom, species, phylum (division), genus, order and class. 11405028

a) Species b) Genus

c) Family d) Order

13. Pigs are reservoir for: 11405029

a) Hepatitis A b) Hepatitis B

c) Hepatitis C d) Hepatitis E

14. Which one of the following is false about AIDS? 11405030

a) HIV

b) Auto-immune deficiency syndrome

c) T-lymphocytes

d) HAV

Multiple Choice Questions

Nomenclature

1. A set of related genera would be grouped into: 11405031

a) A family b) An order

c) A species d) A class

2. A class is a group of related: 11405032

a) Order b) Species

c) Genera d) Family

3. Species is the basic unit of: 11405033

a) Evolution b) Genetics

c) Ecology d) Classification

4. Carolus Linnaeus developed the system of nomenclature which is called: 11405034

a) Monomial

b) Binomial

c) Trinomial

d) Naming and classification

5. Linnaeus published his list of animals in:

a) 1747 b) 1748 11405035

c) 1758 d) 1753

6. In the scientific name of onion, Allium cepa, the Allium belongs to its: 11405036

a) Genus b) Group

c) Species d) Family

7. Members of which Category resembles to one another more than do the members of higher taxon: 11405037

a) Middle

b) Second last from higher

c) Second to higher

d) Lower

8. Cassia fistula is the scientific name for:

a) Amaltas b) Golden shower

c) Kikar d) Argvad 11405038

9. Solanum tuberosum is the scientific name of: 11405039

a) Potato b) Tobacco

c) Tomato d) Onion

10. Scientific name has advantage of having:

a) No scientific basis 11405040

b) Scientific basis and universally accepted.

c) Same organisms having different names in different areas.

d) Same name applied to different organisms.

11. Large groups are divided into smaller groups until level: 11405041

a) Phylum b) Order

c) Species d) Classes

12. Order includes related: (Board 2014) 11405042

a) Families b) Genera

c) Species d) Classes

13. Species is the basic unit of: 11405043

a) Genetics b) Classification

c) Ecology d) Zoology

14. Heterotrophic organisms that are absorptive in their nutritional mode are:

a) algae b) protists 11405044

c) plants d) fungi

15. Classification1 is based on relationship amongst individuals that are similarity in:

a) Form b) structure 11405045

c) function d) both a & b

16. The kingdom is the highest group in:

11405046

a) Nomenclature b) classification

c) categorization d) arrangement

17. Class includes related: 11405047

a) species b) genera

c) families d) orders

18. Family includes related: 11405048

a) species b) genera

c) families d) orders

19. Species includes related: 11405049

a) families b) population

c) individuals d) genera

20. Corn belongs to family: 11405050

a) Poaceae b) Solanaceae

c) Fabaceae d) Brassicaceae

21. Linnaeus published the list of names of plants in: 11405051

a) 1723 b) 1733

c) 1743 d) 1753

22. In 1969, the five kingdom system was proposed by: 11405052

a) Robert Koch b) Robert Whittekar

c) Robert Hooke d) Robert Brown

23. Eukaryotic multicellular reducers for example mushrooms are included in kingdom: 11405053

a) Fungi b) Algae

c) Plantae d) Monera

24. Phylum includes related: 11405054

a) Orders b) classes

c) genera d) families

25. Genus includes related: 11405055

a) individuals b) families

c) species d) orders

26. Biological name of corn is: 11405056

a) Allium cepa

b) Cassia fistula

c) Solanum melangena

d) Zea mays

27. Eukaryotic multi-cellular autotrophs are included in kingdom: 11405057

a) plantae b) animalia

c) fungi d) monera

28. All organisms are related to one another at some point in their: 11405058

a) developmental histories

b) evolutionary histories

c) embryonic histories

d) All of these

29. A group of natural populations which can interbreed freely among themselves and produce fertile offsprings, but are reproductively isolated from all other such groups in nature is a: 11405059

a) community b) individual

c) species d) genus

30. The highest group in classification is:

11405060

a) species b) genus

c) phylum d) kingdom

31. Each kingdom is divided into smaller groups called: 11405061

a) phyla b) classes

c) orders d) families

32. A system for naming and classifying the organisms was devised during the 18th century, by: 11405062

a) Louis Pasteur

b) Carlous Linnaeus

c) Lynn Margulis

d) Jean Baptiste de-Lamarck

33. Carlous Linnaeus took the scientific name from: 11405063

a) Greek word b) Arabic word

c) Latin word d) Urdu word

34. Linnaeus's system of giving each species a scientific name comprising two words is known as: 11405064

a) Binomial classification

b) Linnaeus nomenclature

c) Nominal nomenclature

d) Binomial nomenclature

35. Scientific name for onion is: 11405065

a) Allium cepa

b) Cassia fistula

c) Homo sapiens

d) Solanum tuberosum

36. Scientific name for amaltas is: 11405066

a) Allium cepa

b) Cassia fistula

c) Homo sapiens

d) Solanum tuberosum

37. Scientific name for man is: 11405067

a) Allium cepa

b) Solanum malengena

c) Homo sapiens

d) Solanum tuberosum

38. Botanical name for potato is: 11405068

a) Allium cepa

b) Cassia fistula

c) Solanum malengena

d) Solanum tuberosum

39. Botanical name for brinjal is: 11405069

a) Allium cepa

b) Cassia fistula

c) Solanum melangena

d) Solanum tuberosum

40. Plants can prepare their own food from simple inorganic material and store energy so called: 11405070

a) autotrophs b) heterotrophs

c) phototrophs d) chemotrophs

41. Animals cannot synthesize their own food from simple inorganic material so called:

a) autotrophs 11405071

b) heterotrophs

c) saprotrophs

d) chemotrophs

42. A third kingdom protista was proposed to accommodate Euglena like organisms and bacteria, in 1866 by:

a) E-Chatton 11405072

b) Ernst Hackel

c) Linnaeus Carolus

d) Aristotle

43. Differentiating terms Procariotique to describe bacteria and blue-green algae, and the term eucariotique to describe animal and plant cells was suggested in 1937 by:

a) Louis Pasteur 11405073

b) Ernst Hackel

c) Linnaeus Carolus

d) E-Chatton

44. Special forms of heterotrophs that obtain energy and structural material by decomposing (breaking down) and absorbing food substances from the surrounding are: 11405074

a) protists b) bacteria

c) fungi d) animal

45. The system of classification associated with three principal modes of nutrition -photosynthesis, absorption and ingestion was proposed by: 11405075

a) Robert Whittaker

b) Margulis & Schwartz

c) Carolus Linnaeus

d) Ernst Hackel

46. Kingdom Monera include prokaryotic unicellular organisms such as: 11405076

a) bacteria b) cyanobacteria

c) both (a) & (b) d) viruses

47. Kingdom Protista include eukaryotic predominantly unicellular organisms such as: 11405077

a) Euglena

b) Amoeba

c) Cynobacteria

d) Both a and b

48. Kingdom Fungi include eukaryotic multicellular reducers for example: 11405078

a) Mushrooms b) Yeasts

c) Pencillium d) All of the above

49. Kingdom Animalia include eukaryotic multicellular: 11405079

a) Consumers b) Reducers

c) Producers d) Decomposers

50. Five kingdoms namely: Monera, Protista, Plantae, Animalia and Fungi were proposed in 1969 by: 11405080

a) Robert Whittaker

b) Margulis & Schwartz

c) E-Chatton

d) Ernst Hackel

51. Five kingdoms which are: Prokaryotae (Monera), Protoctista "(Protista), Plantae, Animalia and Fungi were proposed in 1988 by: 11405081

a) Robert Whittaker

b) Margulis & Schwartz

c) E. Chatton

d) Ernst Hackel

Viruses

1. In 1796, who first vaccinated an 8 years old boy with material removed from cowpox lesion on the hand of milkmaid.

a) Edward Jenner 11405082

b) Edward Jacky

c) Louis Pasteur

d) Twort

2. The filterable agents were first purified in 1935, when Stanley was successful in crystallizing the virus. 11405083

a) Polio b) Tobacco mosaic

c) Hepatitis d) Influenza

3. Viruses range in size from 250 nanometer (nm) of poxviruses to the 20 nm of: 11405084

a) Parvoviruses b) provirus

c) previrus d) protovirus

4. 162 capsomeres are present in the _____of herpes virus, 11405085

a) Head b) Tail

c) Capsid d) Capon

5. The best known phages are T phages that infect: 11405086

a) Salmonella typhi

b) Mycoplasma

c) Pseudomonas

d) Escherichia coli

6. The bacteriophage replicates only inside the: 11405087

a) animal cell b) plant cell

c) bacterial cell d) fungal cell

7. The tail of bacteriophage releases the enzyme to dissolve a portion of the bacterial cell wall, 11405088

a) Lipase b) Lysozyme

c) Ligase d) Erypsin

8. The phage which causes lysis of the host cell is known as or virulent phage. 11405089

a) lytic b) lotic

c) lentic d) lysogenic

9. Most commonly Herpes simplex occurs in the mouth, on the lips, and at other sites of

a) receptor b) binding 11405090

c) active d) skin

10. The retroviruses have a special enzyme called, ____which can convert a single-stranded RNA genome into double stranded viral DNA. 11405091

a) Transcriptase

b) RNA polymerase

c) Reverse transcriptase

d) DNA polymerase

11. Cells in ______ system can also be infected by HIV. 11405092

a) central nervous

b) digestive

c) circulatory

d) respiratory

12. Hepatitis A is transmitted by contact with_____ from infected individuals.

a) water b) faeces 11405093

c) blood d) spit

13. Viruses of hepatitis A, B and _____ are better studied. 11405094

a) D b) E

c) C d) F

14. At the time of Louis Pasteur and Robert Koch the word virus was generally referred to as a poison associated with:

a) disease b) death 11405095

c) both (a) & (b) d) life

15. The word virus is derived from Latin word venome meaning: 11405096

a) toxic fluid

b) poisonous fluid

c) harmful fluid

d) teasing fluid

16. The term vaccination was used by Louis Pasteur for inoculation against: 11405097

a) virus b) bacteria

c) disease d) wounds

17. In 1982, Ivanowsky discovered that the agent which caused tobacco mosaic disease was: 11405098

a) riddle able b) drainable

c) washable d) filterable

18. Twort in 1915 and D'Herelle in 1917 discovered independently: 11405099

a) bacteriophages b) bacteria

c) viruses d) algae

19. Viruses are extremely small infectious agents, which can only be seen under:

a) compound microscope 11405100

b) dissecting microscope

c) electron microscope

d) telescope

20. All viruses are generally resistant to broad range of available antibiotics such as:

a) Penicillin 11405101

b) Streptomycin

c) Tetracycline

d) All of the above

21. Capsid is made up of protein subunits known as: 11405102

a) capsidomeres b) capsomeres

c) capomeres d) protomeres

22. The capsomeres present in the capsid of adenovirus are: 11405103

a) 100 b) 200

c) 252 d) 352

23. Bacteriophages occur in two structural forms having cubical or: 11405104

a) radial symmetry

b) asymmetry

c) bilateral symmetry

d) helical symmetry

24. Among T phages, the T₂ and T₄ phages are mainly used in: 11405105

a) Bacteria studies

b) Phage studies

c) Algal studies

d) E. coli studies

25. The overall structure of T₄ studied by electron microscopy, resembles that of:

a) cub b) calf 11405106

c) tadpole d) eaglet

26. The bacteriophage replicates only inside the: (Board 2013) 11405107

a) plant cell b) animal cell

c) algal cell d) bacterial cell

27. The first step in the replication of a bacteriophage is its attachment (adsorption) to host cell at: 11405108

a) receptor site b) active site

c) binding site d) adsorption site

28. Immediately after entering the host cell, the viral nucleic acid takes the control of the hosts: 11405109

a) DNA b) protein

c) synthetic area

d) biosynthetic machinery

29. About 25 minutes after initial infection, new bacteriophages formed are approximately: 11405110

a) 100 b) 200

c) 300 d) 600

30. The phage which causes lysogeny is called: 11405111

a) Temperate phage

b) Lysogenic phage

c) Avirulent phage

d) All of the above

31. Herpes virus is responsible for Herpes:

a) Simplex b) Duplex 11405112

c) Triplex d) Quadruple

32. Mumps and Measles viruses belong to group: 11405113

a) Parvovirus

b) Paramyxoviruses

c) Myxovirus

d) Paravirus

33. About 60% of adults are immune to:

a) Measles b) Small pox 11405114

c) Mumps d) Cow pox

34. The polioviruses are the smallest known viruses and contain RNA in: 11405115

a) Oval capsid

b) Cubical capsid

c) Helical capsid

d) Spherical capsid

35. The single stranded RNA tumor viruses are: 11405116

a) spherical b) elongated

c) spiral d) cubical

36. RNA tumor viruses have in diameter about: 11405117

a) 10 nm b) 100 nm

c) 150 nm d) 200 nm

37. The AIDS was reported by some physicians in early: 11405118

a) 1940's b) 1960's

c) 1980's d) 2000's

38. The major cell infected by HIV is the helper: 11405119

a) A-monocyte b) T -monocyte

c) B-lymphocyte d) T –lymphocyte

39. Hepatitis A is transmitted by contact with:

a) faeces b) urine 11405120

c) spit d) body

40. Genetically engineered vaccine is available for HBV and HAV but not for:

a) HCV b) HDV 11405121

c) HEV d) All of these

41. The volume of the phage is as compared to the host is about: 11405122

a) 1/10 b) 1/100

c) 1/1000 d) 1/10000

42. The branch which deals with the study of virus is known as: 11405123

a) Biovirology b) Virology

c) Venomology d) Poisonolgy

43. Bacteria cannot pass through porcelain filters was found in 1884, by: 11405124

a) Charles Loyal

b) Charles Boyl

c) Charles Chamberland

d) Robert Koch

44. D'Herelle used the word bacteriophages meaning: 11405125

a) bacteria supporter

b) bacteria lover

c) bacteria hater

d) bacteria eater

45. The complete, mature and infectious viral particle is known as: 11405126

a) Virion b) prion

c) both a & b d) none

46. Non enveloped viruses are known as:

11405127

a) bare virions b) naked virions

c) nude vitions d) stripped virions

47. The overall structure of T 4 studied by electron microscopy. resembles that of tadpole consisting of: 11405128

a) head, neck; & tail

b) head, neck, trunk & tail

c) head & tail

d) trunk &, tail

48. Two types of life-cycles, have been observed in Bacteriophages: 11405129

a) lytic & Iysic cycle

b) lytic & lotic cycle

c) lytic & logic cycle

d) lytic & lysogenic cycle

49. Lysozyme is also made by: 11405130

a) viral DNA b) viral protein

c) viral RNA d) all of the above

50. In small pox, raised fluid-filled vesicles are formed on the body which become pustule later on and form pitted scars, the:

a) vesicles b) pocks 11405131

c) tracheids d) furrows

51. Mumps and Measles viruses are: 11405132

a) DNA viruses b) RNA viruses

c) DNA-RNA viruses

d) RNA-DNA viruses

52. The Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) causes: 11405133

a) AIDS b) hepatitis

c) measles d) mumps

53. In 1986 the AIDS virus was named as:

a) human immunodeficiency virus 11405134

b) HIV

c) HIDV

d) both a & b

54. Vaccine against HIV has been synthesized and its experimental administration in humans started in early 2001 in: 11405135

a) South America

b) France

c) South Africa

d) Pakistan

55. Most recent work of Halbur and Coworker (2001) reveals that pig could be the source of infection of: 11405136

a) Hepatitis A b) Hepatitis B

c) Hepatitis D d) Hepatitis E

56. By adopting hygienic measures, with routine vaccination and screening of blood/organ/tissue of the donor we can control: 11405137

a) Hepatitis b) AIDS

c) Measles d) Herpes simplex

57. Viruses are 10 to 1000 times smaller than most, 11405138

a) cyanobacteria b) yeast

c) bacteria d) euglena

58. Viruses can reproduce only in animal and plant cells or in microorganisms, where they reproduce by replication. Thus they are: 11405139

a) obligate intracellular parasites

b) obligate extracellular parasites

c) facultative intracellular parasites

d) facultative extracellular parasites

59. A process by which many copies or replicas of virus are formed is: 11405140

a) ragmentation

b) budding

c) fission

d) replication

60. Viruses lack metabolic machinery for the synthesis of their own: 11405141

a) RNA & protein

b) nucleic acid & protein

c) fatty acid & protein

d) amino acid & protein

61. The viral genome is surrounded by a protein coat, the: 11405142

a) cap b) protocoat

c) capsid d) capsomere

62. In some animal viruses the nucleocapsid is covered by another membrane derived from the host cell, the: 11405143

a) sheath b) envelope

c) cover d) wrapper

63. The nucleic acid and capsid is collectively called: 11405146

a) nucleoid b) capsonucleoid

c) both (a) & (b) d) nucleocapsid

64. In general appearance cubical phages are regular solid or; icosahedral having: 11405144

a) 20 faces b) 10 faces

c) 5 faces d) 2 faces

65. In general appearance helical phages are:

a) spiral b) rod shaped 11405145

c) spherical d) tadpole shaped

66. An elongated pyramidal, hexagonal, prism-shaped structure of bacteriophage is:

a) tail b) neck 11405146

c) trunk d) head

67. To end plate six tail fibres are attached in: 11405147

a) bacteria b) cyanobacteria

c) bacteriophage d) virus

68. Some times the viral DNA is removed from the host's chromosome and lytic cycle starts. This process is called:

a) introduction b) initiation 11405148

c) stimulation d) induction

69. Smallpox is caused by: 11405149

a) poxviruses

b) parvoviruses

c) paramyxoviruses

d) adenoviruses

70. Smallpox virus is the: 11405150

a) DNA enveloped virus

b) DNA non-enveloped virus

c) RNA enveloped virus

d) RNA non-enveloped virus

71. Herpes virus is a: 11405151

a) DNA-RNA virus

b) RNA virus

c) DNA virus

d) RNA-DNA virus

72. Influenza virus is: 11405152

a) enveloped DNA virus

b) non-enveloped DNA virus

c) enveloped RNA virus

d) non-enveloped RNA virus

73. Poliomyelitis is caused by: 11405153

a) polio virus b) myelitis virus

c) both (a) & (b) d) pol virus

74. The HIV is transmitted by: 11405154

a) intimate sexual contact

b) contact with blood

c) breast feeding

d) all of the above

75. Hepatitis is an inflammation of the:

a) kidney b) liver 11405155

c) stomach d) bladder

76. Hepatitis is usually caused by: 11405156

a) viral infection b) toxic agents

c) drugs d) all of these

77. Hepatitis transmitted by the exchange of body fluids, for example blood serum, breast milk and saliva, from mother to child during birth or after ward and by sexual contact is: 11405157

a) A b) B

c) C d) D

78. Hepatitis B is caused by: 11405158

a) DNA-RNA virus

b) RNA virus

c) DNA virus

d) RNA-DNA virus

79. Hepatitis is characterized by jaundice, abdominal pain, liver enlargement, fatigue and some times: 11405159

a) fever b) cold

c) cough d) shivering

80. The hepatitis that passes through blood, from mother to child during pregnancy and after ward and by sexual contact is: 11405160

a) hepatitis A b) hepatitis C

c) hepatitis E d) hepatitis G

81. Hepatitis C was formerly called: 11405161

a) non-A hepatitis

b) non-B hepatitis

c) both (a) & (b)

d) non-D hepatitis

82. People with chronic hepatitis infection are at the risk of damage of: 11405162

a) kidney b) intestine

c) stomach d) liver

83. Pigs could be reservoirs to: 11405163

a) Hepatitis E b) Hepatitis A

c) Hepatitis B d) Hepatitis C

84. Vaccine is not yet available for: 11405164

a) Hepatitis B virus

b) Hepatitis A virus

c) Hepatitis C virus

d) All of above

85. The human immune-deficiency virus primarily infects: 11405165

a) Red blood cells

b) Helper T-Cells (T-lymphocytes)

c) Plasma cells

d) None of above

86. Which one of following is false about AIDS: 11405166

a) Host specific

b) HAV

c) T-lymphocytes

d) Acquired immuno deficiency syndrome

87. RNA retroviruses have a special enzyme that: 11405167

a) Translate host DNA

b) Transcribes viral RNA to DNA

c) Polymerise host RNA

d) Synthesizes host DNA

88. Retroviruses cause the disease: 11405168

a) AIDS

b) Sleeping sickness

c) Malaria

d) Mumps and measles

89. Smallpox is caused to human beings by:

a) Prions b) Bacteria 11405169

c) Viruses d) Protozoans

90. Paramyxoviruses cause the disease:

a) Tetatus 11405170

b) Measles and mumps

c) Influenza

d) Herpes simplex

91. Polioviruses are: 11405171

a) Spherical b) Filamentous

c) Vesicular d) Rod-shaped

92. Temperate phage may exist as: 11405172

a) Retrovirus b) Virioid (Board 2015)

c) Capsid d) Prophage

93. In the lysogenic cycle, the DNA of a bacterlophage: 11405173

a) Joins the bacterial chromosome.

b) Goes directly to the host's ribosome for translation.

c) Attaches to the inner surface of the host membrane.

d) Is immediately degraded when it enters the host.

94. The best known phages are T phages that infect: 11405174

a) Escherichia coli b) Mycoplasma

c) Pseudomonas d) Salmonella typhi

95. Which of the following is a true statement? 11405175

a) Viruses do not need ribosomes for protein formation.

b) Viruses use the host's ribosomes for their own needs.

c) New viral ribosomes form after viral DNA center the cell.

d) Viruses carry with them their own machinery for protein formation.

96. Which is the most effective protection against viral infections: 11405176

a) Washing hands

b) Antibiotics

c) Disinfectants

d) Natural immunity of the host

97. Common cold is caused to human by the: 11405177

a) Oncovirus b) Adenovirus

c) Parvovirus d) Retrovirus

98. Which of the following are found in all viruses? 11405178

a) DNA, RNA and protein.

b) Protein, nucleic acid, carbohydrate

c) Protein and nucleic acid.

d) Envelope, nucleic acid, capsid.

99. An isolated virus is not considered living since it: 11405179

a) Separates into two inert parts

b) Is coated with an air tight shield

c) Rapidly looses its genome chemically inert

d) Cannot metabolize

100. A virion is a: 11405180

a) Viral gene b) Viral enzyme

c) Viral protein d) Virus

101. Which of the following is an infectious protein particle: 11405181

a) Capsid b) Prion

c) Virion d) Retrovirus

102. Mad cow disease is caused by: 11405182

a) Virus b) Bacteria

c) Prions d) Fungus

SELECTED FROM BOARD PAPERS

i. The major cell infected by HIV is the Helper (Board 2007) 11405183

(a) A-monocyte (b) T-monocyte

ii. The branch which deals with the study of virus is known as: (Board 2007) 11405184

(a) Biovirology (b) Virology

iii. Paramyxoviruses cause the disease (Board 2004) 11405185

(a) Influenza

(b) Polio

(d) Herpes simplex

iv. Smallpox is caused by: (Board 2005) 11405186

(a) Virus (b) Bacteria

v. Which one of the following is not a viral disease? (Board 2006) 11405187

(a) Cow pox (b) Small pox

vi. A temperate phage may exist as (Board 2006) 11405188

(a) Prophage (b) Capsid

vii. In five kingdom systems of classification developed by Whattaker, member of the kingdom plantae are autotrophic, eukaryotic and: (Board 2007) 11405189

(a) Multicellular (b) Motile

viii. The infectious proteins are: (Board 2008)

(a) viruses (b) virions 11405190

Short Questions

NOMENCLATURE

Q.1 How many species of animals and plants are known? 11405191

Q.2 Define species. (Board 2007, 15) 11405192

Q.3 What is the lowest (smallest) and highest group in classification? 11405193

Q.4 Give the biological classification of corn. (Board 2014) 11405194

Q.5 By whom and when was system for naming and classifying devised? 11405195

Q.6 Why was the term vaccination used by Louis Pasteur? 11405196

Q.7 Why is nomenclature required? Give at least one solid reason. 11405197

Q.8 What is Binomial nomenclature?

(Board 2005) 11405198

Q.9 Give any two rules of binomial nomenclature. 11405199

Q.10 What is the difference between kingdom plantae and fungi? 11405200

Q.11 What is the botanical name for potato and brinjal? 11405201

Q.12 What is the scientific name for onion, amaltas and man? 11405202

Q.13 What were the suggestions of Hackle and E.Chatton to accommodate Euglena?

11405203

Q.14 What are the basis of five kingdom system proposed by Robert Whittaker?

11405204

Q.15 Name the five Kingdoms proposed by Robert Whittaker. 11405205

Q.16 What is the difference between Kingdoms Monera and Protista?

(Board 2007) 11405206

Q.17 On what basis did Margulis and Schwartz modify five kingdom classification of Whittaker. Name their five kingdoms. 11405207

Q.18 What is a group of biological families known as? 11405208

Q.19 Write down the phylum and class of Zea mays. 11405209

Q.20 List the divisions of the biological classification system of animals. 11405210

Q.21 Define the terms autotrophs and heterotrophs. 11405211

Q.22 Name the organism which shares the characters of both the plants as well as animals. 11405212

Q.23 Enumerate the plant-like and animal-like characteristics of Euglena.

11405213

Q.24 Define virus. 11405214

Q.25 Why can viruses pass through the pores of filter while bacteria cannot? 11405215

Q.26 What do you mean by obligate intracellular parasites? 11405216

Q.27 What are prions and viroid? 11405217

Q.28 What is the composition of virion? 11405218

Q.29 Where is word virus derived from? 11405219

Q.30 What was the work of Ivanowsky? 11405220

Q.31 Are viruses resistant to antibiotics? 11405221

Q.32 What is the capsid made up of? 11405222

Q.33 Into how many structural forms do bacteriophages occur? 11405223

Q.34 Which phages are used for phage studies? 11405224

Q.35 What is the overall structure of T₄? 11405225

Q.36 What is the first step in the replication of a bacteriophage? 11405226

Q.37 What does the viral nucleic acid do immediately after entering the host cell?

11405227

Q.38 How many bacteriophages are formed after initial infection? 11405228

Q.39 What is temperate (lysogenic) or a virulent phage? 11405229

Q.40 What is virology? (Board 2015) 11405230

Q.41 What did Chamberland find? 11405231

Q.42 What are naked virions? 11405232

Q.43 How many types of life-cycles, have been observed in Bacteriophages? 11405233

Q.44 With which material Jenner vaccinated 8 years old boy? 11405234

Q.45 When were filterable agents first purified? 11405235

Q.46 What is the size of viruses? 11405236

Q.47 What is lysozyme? 11405237

Q.48 What is lytic or virulent phage? 11405238

Q.49 How many times are viruses smaller than bacteria? 11405239

Q.50 Differentiate between capsid and capsomeres. 11405240

Q.51 What is nucleocapsid? 11405241

Q.52 What is the shape of head of bacteriophage? 11405242

Q.53 What is the meaning of Pyramidal?

11405243

Q.54 What is induction? 11405244

Q.55 What is prophage and lysogeny? 11405245

Q.56 What is the difference between cubical and helical phages? 11405246

Q.57 At the time of Louis Pasteur and Robert Koch the word virus was referred for what purpose? 11405247

Q.58 What are different shapes of viruses? 11405248

Q.59 What is rabies and how are its agents transmitted to human beings?

11405249

Q.60 What is the cause of Tobacco mosaic disease? 11405250

Q.61 Who isolated the viruses from the host tobacco cells and when? 11405251

Q.62 What is an obligate parasite? 11405252

Q.65 Name some viral diseases which are common in Pakistan. 11405253

Q.66 What is herpes simplex? 11405254

Q.67 What is Influenza? 11405255

Q.68 What is Mumps? 11405256

Q.69 What is Measles? 11405257

Q.70 What do you know about Polio or Poliomyelitis? 11405258

Q.71 What are pocks? 11405259

Q.72 What are the symptoms of small pox? (Book 2014) 11405260

Q.73 On what basis do you say that HIV is host specific? 11405261

Q.74 What is the mode of transmission of HIV? 11405262

Q.75 How can we prevent AIDS? 11405263

Q.76 What is reverse transcriptase? 11405264

Q.77 What is Hepatitis? How is it caused? 11405265

Q.78 What are the symptoms of Hepatitis? 11405266

Q.79 Name different types of viral hepatitis. 11405267

Q.80 What is the mode of transmission of Hepatitis B? 11405268

Q.81 How is hepatitis C transmitted? 11405269

Q.82 How is hepatitis A transmitted? 11405270

Q.1 What are oncoviruses or retroviruses? (Board 2006) 11405271

Q.2 Write a short note on AIDS. (Board 2007) 11405272

Q.3 Differentiate between Retroviruses and Bacteriophage. (Board 2007) 11405273

Q.4 How has small pox been eliminated from the world? (Board 2007) 11405274

Q.5 What do you know about the capsid of a virus? (Board 2008) 11405275

Unit 6

KINGDOM PROKARYOTAE

Objectives + Short Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Bacteria range in size from about 0.1 to ______µm over a single dimension. 11406017

a) 500 b) 600

c) 700 d) 800

2. Epulopiscium fishelsoni grows as large as 600 µm by. 11406018

a) 80 µm b) 70 µm

c) 90 µm d) 60 µm

3. An average coccus in diameter is about. a) 0.1-0.5 µm b) 1.0-2.0 µm 11406019

c) 0.5 -1.0 µm d) 0.2 -0.7 µm

4. Example of rod shaped bacteria is: 11406020

a) Spirocheta b) Diplococcus

c) Rhizopus d) Escherichia coli

5. Flagellum is made up of protein: 11406021

a) Flagellin b) Tubulin

c) Insulin d) Globin

6. Bacteria produce capsule, which is made up of repeating units, and of protein, or of both: 11406022

a) Monosaccharide

b) Polysaccharide

c) Oligosaccharide

d) Disaccharide

7. By Gram staining technique, gram positive bacteria are stained___in colour. 11406023

a) yellow b) pink

c) purple d) blue

8. The plasma membrane and every thing present within is known as: 11406024

a) Protoplast b) Chloroplast

c) Plasmaplast d) Cytoplast

9. Which one is a microaerophilic bacterium?
11406025

a) Nitrobacter b) Spirochete

c) Pseudomonas d) Campylobacter

10. Bacteria increase in number by an asexual means of reproduction called: 11406026

a) binary fission b) budding (Board 2014)

c) regeneration d) multiple fission

11. The procedures to eliminate or reduce the possibility of infection is called: 11406027

a) Antiseptics b) Antisepsis

c) Antibiotics d) Antidote

12. Which one can affect auditory nerve thus causing deafness? 11406028

a) Tetracyclin b) Chloramphenicol

c) Streptomycin d) Neomycin

13. Cyanobacteria range in diameter from about: 11406029

a) 1-5 mm b) 5-10 mm

c) 0.1-1 mm d) 1-10 mm

14. Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic partner in most of association: 11406030

a) Lichen b) Fungal

c) Algal d) Plant

15. Leeuwenhoek used a simple microscope to describe bacteria and protozoa and called these small creatures as: 11406031

a) Microanimals b) Animalcules

c) Beastcules d) Micromonsters

16. The diameter of smallest bacteria is about 100 to: 11406032

a) 150 µm b) 200 dm

c) 200 nm d) 200 cm

17. The smallest bacteria are some members of the genus: 11406033

a) Microcystis b) Mycoplasma

c) Closteridium d) Pseudomonas

18. The smallest bacteria are approximately the size of the largest viruses i.e. 11406034

a) paramyxoviruses

b) adenoviruses

c) parvoviruses

d) poxviruses

19. Some spirochetes occasionally reach in length: 11406035

a) 200 µm b) 300 µm

c) 400 µm d) 500 µm

20. On the basis of general shape, bacteria are classified into: 11406036

a) two categories

b) three categories

c) four categories

d) five categories

21. The general shapes of bacteria are known as: 11406037

a) Cocci, bacilli and spiral

b) Cocci, bacilli and vibrio

c) Cocci, comma and spiral

d) Cubical, bacilli and spiral

22. When cocci occur in pairs then arrangement is: 11406038

a) tetrad b) diplococcus

c) sarcina d) streptococci

23. When cocci form long chain of cells then arrangement is called as: 11406039

a) tetrad b) diplococcus

c) sarcina d) streptococci

24. When the division of cell is in two planes it will produce a: 11406040

a) Sarcina arrangement

b) Bivalent arrangement

c) Tetrad arrangement

d) Helical arrangement

25. A tetrad is a square of: 11406041

a) 2 cocci b) 4 cocci

c) 6 cocci d) 8 cocci

26. When the division is in three planes, it will produce a: 11406042

a) sarcina arrangement

b) bivalent arrangement

c) tetrad arrangement

d) helical arrangement

27. When division occurred in random planes it will produce a: 11406043

a) staphylococcus arrangement.

b) diplococcus arrangement

c) streptococcus arrangement

d) bacillococcus arrangement

28. In staphylococus arrangement cocci are arranged in irregular, often: 11406044

a) banana-like clusters

b) grape-like clusters

c) berry-like clusters

d) cherry-like clusters

29. Staphylococci aureus, Diplococci pneumoniae etc., are examples of: 11406045

a) bacilli b) spiral

c) cocci d) vibrio

30. The spiral shaped bacteria are: 11406046

a) helically coiled

b) curly coiled

c) cochlearly coiled

d) spirally coiled

31. Spirals come in the form: 11406047

a) vibrio b) spirillum

c) spirochete d) all of above

32. A chain of bacilli is called: 11406048

a) streptobacillus b) diplobacillus

c) staphylobacillus d) tetrad

33. The condition in which Bacteria are without any flagella is called: 11406049

a) monotrichous b) atrichous

c) lophotrichous d) amphtrichous

34. The condition in which bacteria have a single polar flagellum is called: 11406050

(Board 2015)

a) monotrichous b) atrichous

c) lophotrichous d) amphtrichous

35. When tuft of flagella is present only at one pole of bacteria the condition is called: 11406051

a) monotrichous b) atrichous

c) lophotrichous d) amphitrichous

36. When tuft of flagella at each of two poles is present in bacteria, the condition is called: (Board 2014) 11406052

a) peritrichous b) atrichous

c) lophotrichous d) amphitrichous

37.When flagella surround the whole bacterial cell, the condition is called: 11406053

a) peritrichous b) atrichous

c) lophotrichous d) amphitrichous

38. Primary function of flagella is to help in:

a) walking b) motility 11406054

c) running d) rest

39. With the help of flagella, flagellate bacteria can detect and move in response to chemical signals which is a type of behaviour called: 11406055

a) chemotherapeutic

b) chemosynthetic

c) chemotaxis

d) phototexis

40. Hollow, nonhelical, filamentous appendages present in bacteria are: 11406056

a) cilia b) legs

c) flagella d) pili

41. True pili are present on: 11406057

a) Gram negative bacteria

b) Gram positive bacteria

c) Both (a) & (b)

d) Archeobacteria

42. Pili are made up of special protein called:

(Board 2015) 11406058

a) cilin b) pilin

c) flagellin d) tubulin

43. Pili are primarily involved in a mating process between cells called: 11406059

a) plasmogamy b) budding

c) akinetes d) conjugation

44. In bacteria, some pili function as a means of: 11406060

a) organization b) accessory

c) addition d) attachment

45. Some bacteria are covered with loose, soluble shield of macromolecules which is called: 11406061

a) slime b) pellicle

c) sheath d) envelope

46. Slime provides greater pathogenicity to bacteria and protects them against: 11406062

a) pinocytosis b) phagocytosis

c) invasion d) exocytosis

47. The cell walls of most bacteria have a unique macromolecule called: 11406063

a) teichoic acid b) lipoprotein

c) peptidoglycan d) polysaccharide

48. The intact cell wall also contains chemical constituents such as sugar molecules, teichoic acid, lipoproteins and lipopolysaccharide, which are linked to:

a) glycoprotein b) glycolipid 11406064

c) nucleoprotein d) peptidoglycan

49. The cytoplasm of prokaryotic cell lacks membrane bound organelles and: 11406065

a) cytoskeleton b) ribosomes

c) lipid granules d) enzymes

50. The nuclear material or DNA in bacterial cells is a single, circular and: 11406066

a) single stranded b) double stranded

c) tertiary d) quaternary

51. DNA aggregates as an irregular shaped dense area called: 11406067

a) nucleoid b) DNA body

c) chromatid d) plasmid

52. In addition to chromosomes, many bacteria contain: 11406068

a) mitochondria b) chloroplasts

c) plasmids d) glyoxisomes

53. Spores are resistant to adverse physical environment condition such as: 11406069

a) high temperature b) desiccation

c) chemical agents d) All of above

54. Dormant, thick-walled, desiccation resistant forms present inside bacteria are:

a) cysts b) exospores 11406070

c) endospores d) mesosome

55. Bacteria that cannot synthesize their organic compounds from simple inorganic substances are: 11406071

a) autotrophs b) heterotrophs

c) symbionts d) lichen

56. A material obtained by the partial decay of plants and animals is: 11406072

a) hunch b) humus

c) sterols d) murein

57. Parasitic bacteria are fully dependent on their host for their: 11406073

a) respiration b) excretion

c) nutrition d) growth

58. Bacteria that can synthesize organic compounds from simple inorganic substances are known as: 11406074

a) autotrophs b) heterotrophs

c) symbionts d) lichen

59. On the basis of energy source, autotrophic bacteria can be divided into: 11406075

a) Photosynthetic

b) Chemosynthetic

c) Saprophytic

d) Both a & b

60. Photosynthetic bacteria possess chlorophyll which differ from the chlorophyll of: 11406076

a) yellow plants

b) green plants

c) blue green algae

d) purple plants

61. Chemosynthetic bacteria oxidize inorganic compounds like: 11406077

a) ammonia b) nitrate

c) sulphur d) All of above

62. Bacteria which can grow in the absence of oxygen are known as: 11406078

a) anaerobic b) aerobic

c) obligate d) facultative

63. Some bacteria are neither aerobic nor anaerobic but: 11406079

a) obligate b) facultative

c) symbiont d) commensal

64. Facultative bacteria grow either in the presence or absence of: 11406080

a) carbon b) nitrogen

c) hydrogen d) oxygen

65. The interval of time until the completion of next division is known as: 11406081

a) growth time b) birth time

c) generation time d) rest time

66. Some conjugating bacteria use specialized sex pili to transfer: 11406082

a) genetic material b) information

c) food d) water

67. Bacteria decompose: 11406083

a) organic matter b) inorganic matter

c) metals d) plastic

68. Bacteria play a significant role in the completion of cycle of: 11406084

a) nitrogen b) phosphorus

c) sulphur and carbon d) All of these

69. Bacteria are used in number of industries, including 11406085

a) food b) drugs

c) biotechnology d) All of these

70. Bacteria are also responsible for spoilage of: 11406086

a) food b) vegetables

c) food & vegetables d) plastic materials

71. Bacterial species known to cause disease in humans are approximately: 11406087

a) 50 b) 100

c) 200 d) 300

72. The heat that causes coagulation of proteins and kills the microbes: 11406088

a) moist heat b) dry heat

c) intense heat d) mild heat

73. The heat that causes oxidation of chemical constituents of microbes and kills them:

a) moist heat b) dry heat 11406089

c) intense heat d) mild heat

74. Certain electromagnetic radiations below 300 nm are effective in killing of: 11406090

a) plants b) protists

c) Herbs weeds d) microorganisms

75. Membrane filters are used to sterilize heat sensitive compounds like: 11406091

a) antibiotics b) serums

c) hormones d) all of above

76. Chemical substances used on living tissues that inhibit the growth of microorganisms are called as: 11406092

a) disinfectants b) antiseptics

c) sterilizers d) counteracting sepsis

77. Halogens and phenols, hydrogen peroxide, potassium per magnate, alcohol and formaldehyde are: 11406093

a) disinfectants b) antibiotics

c) antiseptics d) antigens

78. Disinfectants inhibit the growth of vegetative cell and are used on: 11406094

a) living materials

b) nonliving materials

c) living and non living materials

d) Living tissues

79. Methods of prevention and treatment that have been introduced to control microbial diseases include: 11406095

a) immunization b) antisepsis

c) chemotherapy d) all of these

80. Tetracycline and penicillin are: 11406096

a) disinfectants b) antiseptics

c) antibiotics d) antigens

81. Pasteur called the attenuated cultures of bacteria, vaccine and immunization with attenuated cultures of bacteria: 11406097

a) vaccination b) inoculation

c) Injection d) shot

82. Pasteur also made a vaccine for: 11406098

a) hydrophobia b) rabies

c) both a & b d) myopia

83. A disease transmitted to people by bites from rabid dogs, cats, and other animals is:

a) hydrophobia b) rabies 11406099

c) both a & b d) myopia

84. Antibiotics are synthesized and secreted by certain bacteria, actinomycetes and: 11406100

a) algae b) fungi

c) lichen d) virus

85. Misuse of antibiotic such as penicillin can cause: 11406101

a) allergic reactions

b) headache

c) deafness

d) mental retardness

86. The cyanobacteria are the largest and most diverse group of photosynthetic bacteria which is previously known as: 11406102

a) red algae b) green algae

c) blue green algae d) brown algae

87. In cyanobacteria, filaments consisting of trichomes are surrounded by: 11406103

a) mucilaginous covering

b) mucilaginous wall

c) mucilaginous envelope

d) mucilaginous sheath

88. The photosynthetic system of cyanobacteria closely resembles that of eukaryotes because they have: 11406104

a) chlorophyll a b) photo system II

c) xanthophylls d) Both a & b

89. In cyanobacteria, photosynthetic pigments and electron transport chain components are located in thylakoid membranes link6 with particles called: 11406105

a) phycobilisomes b) centrosomes

c) phycobilin d) erythrosomes

90. Phycocyanin pigment is predominant phycobilin of: 11406106

a) bacteria

b) cyanobacteria

c) diatoms

d) golden brown algae

91. In cyanobacteria reproduction occurs by:

a) hormogonia b) akinetes 11406107

c) heterocysts d) all of above

92. Oscillatoria and few other cyanobacteria can be used for: 11406108

a) bioremediation

b) genetic experiments

c) pollution indication

d) nitrogen fixation

93. Many species of cyanobacteria form:

11406109

a) water blooms b) water blossoms

c) water flowers d) water crust

94. Trichomes have at interval slightly large, round, light yellowish thick walled cells called: 11406110

a) akinetes b) heterocysts

c) hormogonia d) spores

95. In Greek the word Pro means "before" and caryon means: 11406111

a) cell b) cytoplasm

c) nucleus d) envelope

96. Pasteur's main achievements are the development of vaccines for disease:

a) anthrax b) fowl cholera 11406112

c) rabies d) all of above

97. The diameter ranging 0.75 to 1.25 µm has been observed in: 11406113

a) Staphylococci b) Streptococci

c) Diplococci d) both a & b

98. Diplobacilli occur in: 11406114

a) pairs b) tetrad

c) sarcina d) chains

99. Vibrio is curved or comma shaped:

a) coccus b) rod 11406115

c) bacillus d) spiral

100. Examples of spiral shaped bacteria are:

a) Vibrio 11406116

b) Hyphomicrobium

c) Both a & b

d) Campylobacter

101. Cocci bacteria very rarely have: 11406117

a) cilia

b) cirri

c) flagella

d) mitochondria

102.Christain Gram developed the technique of: 11406118

a) DNA staining b) Feulgen reaction

c) gram staining d) RNA staining

103. By Gram staining technique, gram negative bacteria are stained: 11406119

a) pink b) purple

c) orange d) yellow

104. The cell walls of archaeobacteria are composed of: 11406120

a) proteins b) glycoproteins

c) polysaccharides d) all of these

105. The plasma membrane and every thing present within is known as: 11406121

a) protoplast b) cytoplasm

c) protoplasm d) nucleoplasm

106. The cell membrane invaginates into the cytoplasm forming a structure called:

a) microsome b) mesosome 11406122

c) centrosome d) metasome

107. Photosynthetic autotrophs utilize sunlight as a source of: 11406123

a) heat b) food

c) energy d) carbon

108. Heterotrophic bacteria are divided into: a) saprophytes b) parasites 11406124

c) phototrophs d) both a & b

109. Bacteria which are able to grow in the presence of oxygen are called: 11406125

a) aerobic bacteria

b) anaerobic bacteria

c) obligate bacteria

d) facultative bacteria

110. Campylobacter is a: 11406126

a) micraerophilic bacterium

b) aerobic bacterium

c) anaerobic bacterium

d) facultative bacterium

111. Bacteria increase in number by an asexual means of reproduction called:

a) budding 11406127

b) binary fission

c) transverse fission

d) nuclear fission I

112. The rays generally used for sterilization process are: 11406128

a) alpha b) beta

c) gamma d) X-rays

113. The procedures to eliminate or reduce the possibility of infection are. 11406129

a) antibodies b) antigens

c) antibiotics d) antisepsis

114. Streptomycin can induce auditory nerve thus causing: 11406130

a) deafness b) blindness

c) dumbness d) dullness

115. Reserve food material in cyanobacteria is: 11406131

a) starch b) cellulose

c) glycogen d) sterols

116. Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic partner in most of: 11406132

a) mycorrhizal association

b) commensal association

c) symbiotic association

d) lichen association

117. Trichome mostly breaks near heterocyst and forms hormogonia and thus help in: a) fragmentation b) budding 11406133

c) binary fission d) conjugation

118. A Dutch Scientist "Antone Van Leeuwenhoek" was the first to report the microbes such as: 11406134

a) bacteria b) protozoa

c) both a & b d) none of these

119. The bacterium which is 1.1 to 1.5 µm wide by 2.0 to 6.0 µm long, is: 11406135

a) Salmonella typhi

b) Escherichia coli

c) Closteridium botulisum

d) Campylobacter

120. The spherical or oval bacteria are: 11406136 a) bacilli b) spiral

c) vibrios d) cocci

121. The rod-shaped bacteria are: 11406137

a) bacilli b) spiral

c) vibrios d) cocci

122. Spirochete is a thin, flexible: 11406138

a) bacilli b) spiral

c) vibrios d) cocci

123. Most of bacilli and spiral shaped bacteria have: 11406139

a) cilia b) pseudopodia

c) flagella d) cirri

124. Cell wall is only absent in bacteria:11406140

a) Micrococci b) Clostridium

c) Pseudomonas d) Mycoplasmas

125. By Gram staining technique, gram negative bacteria are stained: 11406141

a) pink b) purple

c) yellow d) orange

126. The cell membrane of bacteria is 5-10nm in: 11406142

a) thickness b) length

c) width d) diameter

127. Nucleoid is visible in the light microscope after staining with: 11406143

a) Gram stain

b) Feulgen stain

c) Eosin stain

d) Haematoxylin

128. Mesosomes are involved in: 11406144

a) DNA replication

b) cell division

c) RNA replication

d) DNA replication and cell division

129. During photosynthesis photosynthetic bacteria use hydrogen sulphide instead of water as: 11406145

a) carbon source

b) nitrogen source

c) hydrogen source

d) sulphur source

130. During photosynthesis photosynthetic bacteria liberate sulphur instead of: 11406146

a) oxygen b) carbon dioxide

c) nitrogen d) chlorine

131. Bacteria which get their food from dead organic matter are: 11406147

a) parasitic b) saprophytic

c) symbiotic d) chemosynthetic

132. Spirochete is: 11406148

a) aerobic bacterium

b) anaerobic bacterium

c) obligate bacterium

d) facultative bacterium

133. Some bacteria require a low concentration of oxygen for growth and are known as: 11406149

a) aerobic

b) anaerobic

c) microaerophilic

d) facultative

134. Some bacteria transfer genetic material from a donor bacterium to a recipient during a process called: 11406150

a) binary fission b) budding

c) regeneration d) conjugation

135. Chemotherapeutic agents and antibiotics work with natural defense and stop the growth of bacteria and other: 11406151

a) microbes b) birds

c) arthropods d) algae

136. About 1880 Pasteur isolated the bacterium, responsible for: 11406152

a) rabies b) chicken cholera

c) anthrax d) small pox

137. Chemotherapeutic chemical substances which are used in treatment of Infectious disease are: 11406153

a) antibodies b) antigens

c) antibiotics d) disinfectants

138. Tetracycline and its related compounds cause permanent discoloration of: 11406154

a) skin b) hair

c) nose and ear d) teeth

139. Phycobilins is used as accessory pigments by: 11406155

a) Cyanobacteria b) Bacteria

c) Algae d) Fungi

140. Cyanobacteria have heterocysts, which are helpful in the fixation of atmospheric: a) carbon b) nitrogen 11406156

c) hydrogen d) oxygen

141. Nostoc is common terrestrial and subaerial: 11406157

a) bacteria b) plant

c) cyanobacteria d) algae

142. Thick walled, enlarge vegetative cells which accumulate food and become resting cells in Nostoc are: 11406158

a) heterocysts b) akinetes

c) cysts d) spores

143. Microbiologists place bacteria in two major categories: Eubacteria and: 11406159

a) probacteria b) cyanobacteria

c) actinobacteria d) archaeobacteria

144. Cell walls of archaeobacteria are different from: 11406160

a) probacteria b) cyanobacteria

c) actinobacteria d) eubacteria

145. Nucleoid in bacteria can be made visible with: 11406161

a) acidic stain b) basic stain

c) gram stain d) fuelgen stain

146. Trichome breaks near heterocyst to form: 11406162

a) Akinete b) Hormogonia

c) Endospore d) Sarcina

147. The difference between filament and trichome is called: 11406163

a) cell wall b) chain of cells

c) mucilage d) slime

148. Which of the following is the primary bacterial cell wall function? 11406164

a) Transport b) Support

c) Motility d) Adhesion

149. Which of the following is not in all bacterial cells? 11406165

a) Cell membrane b) Ribosomes

c) Nucleoid d) Capsule

150. Bacterial endospores function in: 11406166

a) Reproduction b) Protein synthesis

c) Survival d) Storage

151. A huge bacterium has been discovered in the intestine of the brown: 11406167

a) Whale b) Surgeon fish

c) Pig d) Cow

152. A huge bacterium has been discovered in the intestine of brown surgeonfish: 11406168

a) Epulopiscum fishelsoni

b) Campylobacter

c) Acanthusus nigrofuscus

d) Clostridium

SELECTED From BOARD Papers

i. The condition in which Bacteria are without any flagella is called: 11406169

(a) monotrichous (Board 2012)

(b) atrichous

(d) amphitrichous

ii. Some bacteria require a low concentration of oxygen for growth and are known as: (Board 2008) 11406170

(a) aerobic (b) anaerobic

iii. Some bacteria transfer genetic material from a donor bacterium to a recipient during a process called: 11406171

(a) binary fission

(b) budding

(d) conjugation

iv. Which of the following is anaerobic bacteria? (Board 2005) 11406172

(a) Pseudomonas

(b) Escherichia coli

(d) Campylobacter

v. Which one of following is not found in all bacteria? (Board 2006) 11406173

(a) cell membrane (b) ribosomes

vi. Mesosomes are internal extensions of the: (Board 2006, 07, 14) 11406174

(a) cell wall

(b) cell membrane

(d) endoplasmic reticulum

vii. Rapid phase of growth of bacteria is: (Board 2007) 11406175

(a) Lag (b) Log

viii. Milk and milk products are preserved by: (Board 2014) 11406176

(a) Pasteurization (b) Vaccination

ix. Which one of the following require low concentration of oxygen? (Board 2013) 11406177

(a) E.coli (b) Spirochete

Short Questions

DISCOVERY OF BACTERIA

Q.1 Who formulated the germ theory of disease? 11406171

Q.2 What are the techniques invented by Koch and his colleagues? 11406172

Q.3 Describe the postulates of Robert Koch for germ theory of disease. 11406173

Q.4 What is Hydrophobia or rabies?11406174

Q.5 What were called vaccine and vaccination by Pasteur? 11406175

Q.6 How cell walls of archaeobacteria are different from eubacteria? 11406176

Q.7 Where do bacteria occur in environment? 11406177

Q.8 What are contributions of Louis Pasteur in biology? 11406178

Q.9 What is the contribution of Leeuwenhoek in discovery of bacteria?

11406179

Q.10 What are the major categories of bacteria according to microbiologists?

11406180

Q.11 What are the meanings of "Pro" and "caryon" in Greek language? 11406181

Q.1 What is the diameter of smallest bacteria? 11406182

Q.2 Name different types of bacteria on the basis of general shape.

(Board 2015) 11406183

Q.3 What are tetrads? 11406184

Q.4 What are various arrangements of cocci based on their planes of division?

11406185

Q.5 What are different arrangements of bacilli? 11406186

Q.6 Differentiate between vibrio, spirillum and spirochete. 11406187

Q.7 Give at least two examples each of cocci, bacilli and spiral. 11406188

Q.8 What special structures are found in certain bacteria? 11406189

Q.9 Differentiate between diplococci and streptococci. (Board 2014) 11406190

Q.10 What are staphylococci? 11406191

(Board 2014)

Q.11 What is the size of an average coccus? 11406192

Q.12 Differentiate between bacillus and streptobacillus. 11406193

Q.13 Differentiate between atrichous and monotrichous. 11406194

Q.14 Differentiate between lophotrichous and amphitrichous. 11406195

Q.15 What is Peritrichous? 11406196

Q.16 What are flagella? 11406197

Q.17 What is the function of flagella? (Board 2013) 11406198

Q.18 What is the size of Escherichia coli, spirochetes, Staphylococci and Streptococci? 11406199

Q.19 What is the composition of cell wall of bacteria? 11406200

Q.20 What are nucleoid? 11406201

Q.21 What do you know about the spores of bacteria? 11406202

Q.22 How gram staining technique make difference between gram positive and gram negative bacteria? 11406203

Q.23 How bacterial membranes differ from eukaryotic membranes? 11406204

Q.24 What is mesosome? 11406205

Q.25 What is the function of mesosomes? 11406206

Q.26 What type of granules and storage bodies are found in bacteria? 11406207

Q.27 What is Sarcina? 11406208

Q.28 How many forms spirals come in? 11406209

Q.29 What are exceptional shapes of bacteria? 11406210

Q.30 Classify bacteria on the basis of presence of flagella, pattern of attachment of flagella and the number of flagella present bacteria. 11406211

Q.31 What are pili? Describe their function. 11406212

Q.32 What is function of capsule? 11406213

Q.33 What is slime? 11406214

Q.34 What is peptidoglycan? 11406215

Q.35 What are Plasmids?

(Board 2005) 11406216

Q.36 What are cysts? 11406217

Q.1 What is nutrition? 11406218

Q.2 Differentiate between autotrophs and heterotrophs. 11406219

Q.3 Categorize autotrophic bacteria on the basis of energy source. 11406220

Q.4 What is humus? 11406221

Q.5 What is the use of humus? 11406222

Q.6 What are facultative bacteria? 11406223

Q.7 Differentiate between parasitic and saprophytic bacteria. (Board 2015) 11406224

Q.8 What are different categories of autotrophic bacteria? 11406225

Q.9 Differentiate between photosynthetic and chemosynthetic bacteria. 11406226

Q.10 How photosynthesis in bacteria is different from green plants? 11406227

Q.11 Differentiate between aerobic and anaerobic bacteria. 11406228

Q.12 Differentiate between facultative and microaerophilic bacteria. 11406229

Q.13 What is generation time? 11406230

Q.14 How binary fission occur in bacteria? 11406231

Q.15 Differentiate between lag and log phases. (Board 2005) 11406232

Q.16 Differentiate between stationary and death/decline phases. 11406233

Q.17 How many phases are recognized on bacterial growth curve? Briefly describe them. (Board 2007, 08) 11406234

Q.1. What do you mean by biological control? (Board 2007) 11406235

Q.2. Name different physical methods by which bacteria can be controlled. 11406236

Q.3. Differentiate between Microbicidal and Microbistatic effect. 11406237

Q.4. How does bacterial decomposition play significant role? 11406238

Q.5. What is economic importance of bacteria? 11406239

Q.6. How bacteria are ecologically important? (Board 2006) 11406240

Q.7. What is the medical importance of bacteria? 11406241

Q.8. How many species of bacteria are known to cause disease in humans? 11406242

Q.9. How do moist and dry heat control microbes? 11406243

Q.10. Define sterilization. 11406244

Q.11. What electromagnetic radiations are effective in killing of microorganisms?

11406245

Q.12. How heat sensitive compounds are sterilized? 11406246

Q.13. What are antiseptics? 11406247

Q.14. What temperatures are used to sterilize food and milk? 11406248

Q.15. What are chemical methods used for microbial control? 11406249

Q.16. What are disinfectants or what chemical agents are used for disinfection?

11406250

Q.17. What chemical methods or substances are used for natural defence or in living tissues? 11406251

Q.18. What methods of prevention and treatment have been introduced to control microbial diseases? 11406252

Q.1 What are antibiotics? 11406253

Q.2 What care should be taken in the use of antibiotics? 11406254

Q.3 Give two disadvantages of misuse of antibiotics. (Board 2014) 11406255

Q.1. How does movement occur in cyanobacteria? 11406256

Q.2. How photosynthetic system of cyanobacteia closely resemble that of eukaryotes? 11406257

Q.3. What do you know about accessory and photosynthetic pigments of cyanobacteria? 11406258

Q.4. What is the difference between cyanobacteria and plants regarding their reserve food? 11406259

Q.5. How cyanobacteria reproduce? 11406260

Q.6. Give two points of economic importance of cyanobacteria. 11406261

Q.7. What is the disadvantage of water blooms formed by cyanobacteria? 11406262

Q.8. What is the habitat of Nostoc? 11406263

Q.9. When hormogonia are formed? 11406264

Q.10. What is trichome? 11406265

Q.11. What are akinetes? 11406266

Q.12. What are super blue green algae?

11406267

Q.13. What are heterocysts? Also give their function. 11406268

Q.14. What is the function of heterocysts? 11406269

Q.1 What do you know about the capsule of bacterial cell? (Board 2004) 11406270

Q.2 What is trichome? (Board 2007) 11406271

Q.3 What is unique about the structure of bacterial ribosomes? (Board 2007) 11406272

Q.4 What is a trichome in Nostoc? (Board 2007) 11406273

Q.5 Is there any similarity between bacterial and plant cell wall?

(Board 2007) 11406274

Q.6 Give chemical composition of cell walls of Gram negative and Gram positive bacteria. (Board 2014) 11406275

Q.7 Name the bacterium that has no cell wall. (Board 2007, 2010) 11406276

Q.8 What do you know about Epulopiscium fishelsoni? 11406277

Unit 7

THE KINGDOM PROTISTA

Objectives + Short Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Most ciliates are capable of a sexual process called: 11407013

(a) oogamy (b) mating

2. Apicomplexans are a large group of protozoa. 11407014

(a) intestinal (b) parasitic

3. Classification of algae into phyla is largely based on the composition of: 11407015

(a) cell wall (b) cell membrane

4. One of the most unusual protist phyla is that of: 11407016

(a) dinoflagellates (b) zooflagellates

5. Which of the following possess leaf like blades, stem like stipes, and root like anchoring holdfast? 11407017

(a) Eucalyptus (b) Agaricus

6. For microscopic organisms, John Hogg, 1861 proposed the kingdom: 11407018

(a) Protoctista (b) Plantae

7. In five kingdom system of Robert Whittaker only unicellular Eukaryotes were placed in kingdom: 11407019

(a) Monera (b) Plantae

8. Amoebas move by forming specialized cytoplasmic projections, called: 11407020

(a) cilia (b) pseudopodia

9. A human parasite causing African sleeping sickness is: 11407021

(a) Plasmodium (b) Trichonymphas

10. Ciliates are unicellular organisms with a flexible outer covering called a: 11407022

(a) pellicle (b) skin (Board 2015)

11. Oomycotes are close relatives of the:

(a) algae (b) fungi 11407023

12. Which one has played infamous roles in human history as they were the cause of Irish potato famine of the 19th century.

(a) Entamoeba histolytica 11407024

(b) Trypanosoma gambiense

(d) Phytophthora infestans

13. Who, 1866 suggested creating the Kingdom Protista to include bacteria and other microorganisms: 11407025

(a) Ernst Haeckel (b) John Hogg

14. Who 1988, modified the five kingdom system: 11407026

(a) Ernst Haeckel

(b) Margulis and Shwartz

(d) Robert Whittaker

15. Protista or Protoctista is one of the five kingdoms and includes: 11407027

(a) protozoa

(b) algae

(d) all of these

16. Entamoeba histolytica, causes amoebic:

(Board 2014) 11407028

(a) cholera (b) motion

17. Trypanosoma is transmitted by the bite of infected: 11407029

(a) House fly (b) Tsetse fly

18. During conjugation two individuals come together and exchange: 11407030

(a) genetic material (b) food

19. Plasmodium, is the apicomplexan that causes: 11407031

(a) Malaria (b) Yellow fever

20. Photosynthetic protists, carrying out probably 50 to 60 percent of all the photosynthesis on earth are: 11407032

(a) fungi (b) algae

21. Euglenoids have at various times been classified in the: 11407033

(a) plant kingdom (b) animal kingdom

22. All brown algae are multi cellular and range in length from a few centimeters to approximately: 11407034

(a) 10m (b) 25 m

23. Most green algae possess cell walls with:

(a) cellulose (b) chitin 11407035

24. During unfavourable conditions, slime mold forms, resistant haploid spores by meiosis within stalked structures called:

(a) conidia (b) sporangia 11407036

25. Who, 1938, elevated the prokaryotes to kingdom status, thus separating them from Protista: 11407037

(a) Charles Chamberland

(b) Ernst Hackle

(d) John Hogg

26. An amoeba feeds on small organisms and particles of organic matter by phagocytosis, engulfing them with its: 11407038

(a) cilia (b) flagella

27. Choanoflagellates are sessile marine or freshwater flagellates which are attached by a: 11407039

(a) stalk (b) holdfast

28. Water regulation in freshwater ciliates is controlled by special organelles called: 11407040

(a) Vacuoles

(b) Contractile vacuoles

(d) Lysosomes

29. Foraminiferans of the past have created vast deposits of: 11407041

(a) marble (b) limestone

30. Which phylum of algae do not have forms with flagellated motile cells in at least one stage of their life cycle: 11407042

(a) Euglenophyta (b) Chlorophyta

31. Diatoms are very important in: 11407043

(a) aquatic food chains

(b) electron transport chains

(d) respiratory chains

32. The largest brown algae are called: (a) Fucus (b) Kelps 11407044

33. The feeding stage of a Physarum polycephalum is a: 11407045

(a) blastostyle (b) gastrozooid

34. Plasmodium (slime mold) is a multinucleate mass of cytoplasm that can grow in diameter to: 11407046

(a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm

35. Cell walls of Oomycotes contain: 11407047

(a) cellulose (b) chitin

36. Zooflagellates possess from one to many long, whip like: 11407048

(a) tentacles (b) cilia

37. Which protists obtain their food either by ingesting living or dead, organisms or by absorbing nutrients from dead or decomposing organic matter: 11407049

(a) ciliates (b) zooflagellates

38. Complex specialized flagellates with many flagella are: 11407050

(a) Trichonymphas (b) Trypanosoma

39. The protists that live as symbionts in the guts of termites and help in the digestion of dry wood are: 11407051

(a) Trichonymphas (b) Trypanosoma

40. Choanoflagellates are of special interest because of their resemblance to collar cells in: 11407052

(a) Cnidarians (b) Sponges

41. Small diploid micronuclei of ciliates function in: 11407053

(a) excretion (b) digestion

42. A large, polyploid macronucleus of ciliates controls cell: 11407054

(a) Metabolism

(b) Growth

(d) Sexual process

43. Foraminiferans and actinopods produce: 11407055

(a) shells (b) tests

44. Tests of foraminifera are made of: (a) calcium (b) silica 11407056

45. Tests of actinopods are made of: 11407057

(a) calcium (b) silica

46. The shells or tests of foraminiferans and actinopods contain pores through which can be extended: 11407058

(a) flagella

(b) pseudopodia

(d) tentacles

47. Green algae are photosynthetic having in the chloroplasts: 11407059

(a) chlorophyll a (b) chlorophyll' b

48. In Paramecium, the surface of the cell is covered with several thousand fine, short, hair like structure called: 11407060

(a) flagella (b) cilia

49. Which is a brown alga having blades, stipes and holdfast? 11407061

(a) Acetabularia (b) Chondrus

50. Which one is red alga? 11407062

(a) Euglena (b) Gonvaulax

51. Which is dinoflagellate? 11407063

(a) Acetabularia (b) Chondrus

52. Which is member of Chrysophyta?

11407064

(a) Diatoma (b) Euglena

53. Which is member of Chlorophyta?

11407065

(a) Gelidium (b) Spirogyra

54. Which is member of Pyrrophyta? 11407066

(a) Ulva (b) Gonvaulax

55. All protists are eukaryotic and all evolved from: 11407067

(a) algae (b) plants

56. Unlike plants and animals, however, protists do not develop from a: 11407068

(a) blastula (b) embryo

57. The kingdom protista contains four major groups of eukaryotic organisms; single celled protozoans, unicellular algae, multicellular algae and. 11407069

(a) Slime molds

(b) Oomycotes (oomycetes)

(d) Slime molds and oomycotes

58. John Hogg separated blue green algae and bacteria (prokaryotes) from nucleated protists and placed them in a separate group called Monera, within the kingdom: (a) protista (b) fungi 11407070

59. Based on the diversity most biologists regard the protists kingdom as: 11407071

(a) Monophyletic (b) Diphyletic

60. To accommodate protists, Margulis and Schwartz have listed phyla: 11407072

(a) 77 (b) 27

61. Apicomplexans lack specific structures for locomotion but move by: 11407073

(a) contracting (b) gliding

62. Algae differ from the plants in that the sex organs in algae are unicellular and the zygote is not protected by the: 11407074

(a) parent body (b) archegonium

63. A body which is not differentiated into, true roots, stems and leaves and lacks xylem & phloem is called a: 11407075

(a) thalloid (b) thallus

64. In all algae, in addition to green chlorophyll a, also found yellow and orange: 11407076

(a) xanthophylls (b) phycoerythrin

65. Some photosynthetic euglenoids lose their chlorophyll when grown in: 11407077

(a) sea (b) river

66. Some algae are edible such as: 11407078

(a) Diatoms (b) Kelps

67. Marine algae are also source of many useful substance like: 11407079

(a) algin (b) agar

68. Fungus-like protists have bodies formed of threadlike structures called: 11407080

(a) fibres (b) yarns

69. The plasmodial slime mold that is a model organism is: 11407081

(a) Physarum polycephalum

(b) Phytophthora infestans

(d) Frequilaria

70. Oomycotes include a number of pathogenic organisms, including downy mildew: 11407082

(a) Physarum polycephalum

(b) Phytophthora infestans

(d) Candida albicans

71. Algae which are known to have occasional population explosions or blooms are:

(a) Dinoflagellates 11407083

(b) zooflagellates

(d) euglenoids

72. Dinoflagellates blooms frequently colour the water orange, red or brown and are known as: 11407084

(a) orange tides (b) red tides

73. The cell wall of each diatom consists of: 11407085

(a) single shell (b) two shells

74. What is deposited in the shell of diatoms: 11407086

(a) Calcium (b) Pectin

75. Most multi cellular red algae attach to rocks or other substances by a basal:

(a) stalk (b) clutch 11407087

76. Which algae incorporate calcium carbonate in their cell walls from the ocean: 11407088

(a) red algae (b) green algae

77. Which algae take part in building coral reefs along with coral animals: 11407089

(a) green algae

(b) red algae

(d) blue green algae

78. The main energy reserves of green algae are stored as: 11407090

(a) cellulose (b) glycogen

79. RNA sequencing also indicates that green algae and the plants form a: 11407091

(a) Monophyletic lineage

(b) Biphyletic lineage

(d) Tetraphyletic lineage

80. Desmids have cells with: 11407092

(a) two halves

(b) single unit

(d) four fragments

81. Amoebas move and obtain food by means of 11407093

(a) Plasmodium (b) Flagella

82. The sexual process exhibited by most ciliates is called 11407094

(a) Zoogamy

(b) Binary fission

(d) Fertilization

83. Parasitic Protozoans that form spores at some stage in their life belong to which group 11407095

(a) Ciliates

(b) Actinopods

(d) Apicomplexans

84. Algae which have shells composed of two halves that fit together like petri dish belong to 11407096

(a) Brown algae (b) Diatoms

e). Red algae

85. Algae in which body is differentiated into blades, stipes and holdfast belong to (Board 2014) 11407097

(a) Golden algae

(b) Diatoms

(d) Euglenoids

86. Chl.a, Chl.b and carotenoids are found in 11407098

(a) Brown algae, golden algae and diatoms

(b) Green algae, golden algae and euglenoids

(d) Red algae, euglenoids and brown algae

87. The feeding stage of a slime mold is called

(a) Mycelium 11407099

(b) Pseudopodium

(d) Plasmodium

88. Cell wall in Oomycetes is chemically composed of 11407100

(a) Cellulose (b) Chitin

89. Laminaria belongs to _______ group. 11407101

(a) Dinoflagellates (b) Brown algae

90. Polysiphonia belong to 11407102

(a) Dinoflagellates (b) Brown algae

91. Diatom belong to phylum. 11407103

(a) Pheophyta (b) Rhodophyta

92. Which one is not a green alga? 11407104

(a) Spirogyra (b) Euglena

93. Which are not producers? 11407105

(a) Euglenoids (b) Foraminiferans

94. Which one is sessile ciliate? 11407106

(a) Choanoflagellates

(b) Dinoflagellates

(d) Paramecium

95. Which one is symbiont ? 11407107

(a) Trypanosoma (b) Vorticella

96. Which one has cells with two halves:

(a) Diatoms (b) Ulva 11407108

97. Which one alga have sheet like plant body. 11407109

(a) Spirogyra (b) Diatoms

98. Pelomyxa palustris is the name of 11407110

(a) Entamoeba (b) Giant amoeba

99. An experimental non-motile, unicellular alga. 11407111

(a) Chlamydomonas (b) Euglena

100. Which one is human parasite? 11407112

(a) Phytophthora infestans

(b) Physarum polycephalum

(d) Entamoeba histolytica

101. Which one is transmitted in human body by tsetse fly. 11407113

(a) Trichonympha (b) Trypanosoma

102. The group which has polyploidy macronucleus 11407114

(a) Amoebas

(b) Ciliates

(d) Apicomplexans

103. The group, which form Limestone deposits. 11407115

(a) Foraminiferans

(b) Actinopods

(d) Apicomplexans

104. Non-septate (without cross wall) filamentous algae are called as 11407116

(a) Haploid (b) Diploid

105. John Hogg, 1861 proposed the kingdom _____ for microscopic organisms. 11407117

(a) Protoctista (b) Plantae

106. In five kingdom system of Robert Whittaker only unicellular Eukaryotes were placed in kingdom. 11407118

(a) Monera (b) Plantae

107. A human parasite causing African sleeping sickness is. 11407119

(a) Plasmodium

(b) Trichonympha

(d) Trypanosoma

108. Amoebas move by forming specialized cytoplasmic projections called: 11407120

(a) Cilia (b) Pseudopodia

109. Most ciliates are capable of a sexual process called: 11407121

(a) Oogamy (b) Mating

110. Classification of algae into phyla is largely based on their ___composition.

(a) Cell wall 11407122

(b) Cell membrane

(d) Pigments

111. One of the most unusual protist phyla is that of: 11407123

(a) Dinoflagellates (b) Zooflagellates

112. Which one possesses leaf like blades, stem like stipes, and root like anchoring holdfast? 11407124

(a) Eucalyptus (b) Agaricus

113. Late blight potato is caused by: 11407125

(a) Physarum (b) Alternaria sovi

114. Agar is produced by: 11407126

(a) Algae (b) Slime mold

115. Binucleate protists are: 11407127

(a) Zooflagellates (b) Ciliates

116. What is special about sex organs of algae? 11407128

(a) Multicellular, unprotected

(b) Unicellular, unprotected

(d) Unicellular, protected

SELECTED From BOARD papers

i. The feeding stage of a slime mold is a: (Board 2005) 11407129

(a) blastostyle (b) gastrozooid

ii. Which are the major producers in aquatic ecosystem: (Board 2004) 11407130

(a) Green algae (b) Blastostyle

iii. The closest relatives of fungi are probably: (Board 2006) 11407131

(a) Aschelminthes (b) Diatoms (c) Slime molds (d) Ferns

iv. Algae having shells composed of two halves that fit together like Petri dish belong to: (Board 2007) 11407132

(a) Diatoms (b) Brown algae

v. The cell wall consists of two shells that overlap like a petridish: 11407133

(Board 2008)

(a) Foraminifera (b) Actinopods

vi. Mosquitoes infect the plasmodium to human in the form of: (Board 2014) 11407134

(a) Cysts (b) Sporozoites

Short Questions

Q.1. Why kingdom protista is called exclusion kingdom? 11407135

Q.2. Why kingdom protista is regarded as a polyphyletic group of organisms?11407136

Q.3. Name the major groups of Protozoa. Also give examples. 11407137

Q.4. Name different phyla of Algae. 11407138

Q.5. How does the ciliates differ from other protozoans as far as nucleus is concerned? 11407139

Q.6. What is the difference in tests of foraminifera and actinopods? 11407140

Q.7. What is the habitat of zooflagellates?

11407141

Q.8. What is the importance of Trichonymphas? (Board 2015) 11407142

Q.9. How Plasmodium enters the human blood? 11407143

Q.10. How Euglenoids are plant-like as well as animal like? 11407144

Q.11. What are red tides? (Board 2015) 11407145

Q.12. What are coenocytes? 11407146

Q.13. Define Thallus. 11407147

Q.14. What is Chlorella? (Board 2014) 11407148

Q.15. What is the importance of algae?

11407149

Q.16. Why are protists so difficult to classify? 11407150

Q.17. Why protists are placed in separate kingdom? 11407151

Q.18. From which the protist are evolved? 11407152

Q.19. Name major groups of eukaryotic organism of kingdom protists. 11407153

Q.20. When and who proposed the kingdom Protista for microscopic organisms? 11407154

Q.21. What was suggestion of Ernst Haeckle in creating a kingdom protista?

11407155

Q.22. When and who elevated the prokaryotes to kingdom status? 11407156

Q.23. Compare the kingdom Protista as described by Robert Whittaker and Margulis and Schwartz. 11407157

Q.24. In what characters protista had evolved diversity? 11407158

Q.25. What are the locomotory organs of the following: Amoebas, Zooflagellates, Actinopods, Foraminifera and Ciliates.

11407159

Q.26. Give two characters of amoebas. 11407160

Q.27. Name the amoeba and disease caused by it in humans. 11407161

Q.28. What do you know about the locomotion of zooflagellates? 11407162

Q.29. How do flagellates obtain their food? 11407163

Q.30. Name the parasitic flagellates and the disease caused by it and how is it transmitted? 11407164

Q.31. Write a short note on Choanoflagellates. (Board 2014, 15) 11407165

Q.32. What is pellicle? 11407166

Q.33. How water does regulation occur in ciliates? 11407167

Q.34. How does conjugation occur in ciliates? OR (Board 2014) 11407168

What is conjugation?

Q.35. What are cilia and what is their function? or How does movement occur in ciliates? 11407169

Q.36. What is the food of ciliates? 11407170

Q.37. List the similarities between the foraminifera and actinopods. 11407171

Q.38. What is chalk? 11407172

Q.39. Why algae are known as plant like protists? 11407173

Q.40. How algae exhibit a remarkable range of growth forms? 11407174

Q.41. What type of photosynthetic and other pigments are present in algae? 11407175

Q.42. What is the habitat of algae? 11407176

Q.43. Write the common names of the following phyla: 11407177

Euglenophyta, Pyrrophta, Chrysophyta, Phaeophyta, Phodophyta, Chlorophyta.

Q.44. What is the ecological importance of dinoflage1lates? 11407178

Q.45. What is the evolutionary significance of euglenoids? 11407179

Q.46. What type of shells do the dinoflagellates have? 11407180

Q.47. Give two important characters of Diatoms. 11407181

Q.48. Give two examples each of the following: Green algae, Red algae, and Brown algae. 11407182

Q.49. What kinds of protists are included in Brown algae? 11407183

Q.50. What are kelps? 11407184

Q.51. What is the habitat of Brown algae?

11407185

Q.52. What do you know about the red algae? 11407186

Q.53. What are the similarities between green algae and the plants? 11407187

Q.54. Give some characters of the feeding stage of slime mold or Myxomycota. 11407188

Q.55. What does slime mold do during unfavorable and favorable condition?11407189

Q.56. What is Physarum polycephalum?

11407190

Q.57. What was the infamous role played by the Phytophthora infestans in human history? (Board 2015) 11407191

Q.58. What is the function of cytoplasmic projections in foramintferans and actinopods? 11407192

Q.59. Green algae are considered ancestral organisms of green land plants. Discuss.

11407193

Q.60. How fungus-like protists and fungi resemble each other? 11407194

Q.61. What are differences between fungus-like protists and fungi?

(Board 2014) 11407195

Q.62. Name the major groups of fungus-like protists. 11407196

Q.63. Discuss division of labour in ciliates at nucleus level. 11407197

Q.1 Give two characteristics or important features of protists. (Board 2008) 11407198

Q.2 What do you know about giant amoeba? (Board 2007, 13) 11407199

Q.3 How do algae differ from plants? (Board 2005, 2015) 11407200

Q.4 What are apicomplexans? (Board 2007, 14, 15) 11407201

Q.5 Give two characteristics of smile molds. (Board 2005) 11407202

Q.6 Differentiate between diatoms and dinoflagellates. (Board 2006, 2015) 11407203

Q.7 What are foraminiferans? (Board 2007) 11407204

Q.8 What are dinoflagellates? (Board 2007) 11407205

Q.9 Give two examples of chlorophyta?

(Board 2014) 11407206

Unit 8

FUNGI (The Kingdom of Recyclers)

Objectives + Short Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Cell wall of fungi is made of: 11408013

(a) Cellulose (b) Lignin

2. Non-septate hyphae are called ______ hyphae. 11408014

(a) Monokaryotic (b) Dikaryotic

3. Scientists who study fungi are called. 11408015

(a) Phycologists (b) Mycologists

4. All fungal hyphae are _______ except diploid zygote. 11408016

(a) Haploid (b) Diploid

5. A single mycelium may produce upto ______ in length only one day. 11408017

(a) 1mm (b) 1cm

6. The oyster mushroom (Pleurotus ostreatus) is a ______ fungus. 11408018

(a) Saprotrophs (b) Parasite

7. Mycorrhizae association is present in ____ % of all vascular plants. 11408019

(a) 65 (b) 75

8. In which group of fungi sexual reproduction has not been observed.

(a) Zygomycota 11408020

(b) Ascomycota

(d) Deuteromycota

9. The group of fungi with Non-septate hypha, multinucleate (Coenocyte).

(a) Zygomycetes 11408021

(b) Ascomycetes

(d) Deuteromycetes

10. Mushroons, rusts, smuts, puff balls, bracket fungi are the examples of. 11408022

(a) Zygomycota (b) Ascomycota

11. Which group of fungi is also called club fungi? 11408023

(a) Zygomycota

(b) Ascomycota

(d) Deuteromycota

12. Which species is a most common smut fungi? (Board 2013) 11408024

(a) Puccinia (b) Ustilago

13. Ustilago tritici (lose smut of wheat) produce _______ spores. 11408025

(a) Conidiospores

(b) Basidiospores

(d) Zygospores

14. Which group is also called imperfect fungi? 11408026

(a) Zygomycetes

(b) Ascomycetes

(d) Deuteromycetes

15. Which one of the followings is poisonous fungus? 11408027

(a) Agaricus (b) Amanita

16. Which one is not animal fungal disease?

(a) Ringworm 11408028

(b) Athletes’ foot

(d) Histoplasmosis

17. Which one is not plant disease? 11408029

(a) Potato wilt

(b) Ergot of rye

(d) Histoplasmosis

18. Pink yeast which grows on shower curtains and other moist surfaces is:

(a) Rhodotorula 11408030

(b) Candida

(d) Saccharomyces

19. Which statement about fungal nutrition

is not true? 11408031

(a) Some fungi are active predators

(b) Some fungi are mutualists

(d) All fungi require mineral nutrients

20. The absorptive nutrition of fungi is

aided by: 11408032

(a) Spore formation

(b) Their large surface area-volume ratio

(d) They form fruiting bodies

21. The Zygomycetes: 11408033

(a) Have hyphae without regularly

occurring cross walls

(b) Produce motile gametes

(d) Answer a and c are both correct

22. Which of the following cells/structures are associated with asexual reproduction in fungi? 11408034

(a) Ascospores (b) Conidia

23. The closest relatives of fungi are probably. 11408035

(a) Animals

(b) Slime molds

(d) Vascular plants

24. E.coli of fungi are the 11408036

(a) Rusts (b) Brown mold

25. An ascus is to ascomycetes as is a ________ to basidiomycetes. 11408037

(a) Basidiospore (b) Basidiocarp

26. Which statement is not true about Deuteromycetes? 11408038

(a) They are also called imperfect fungi.

(b) Their asexual spores are called conidia

group

(d) They have both sexual and asexual

reproduction

27. 50% or so of are occurring in lichens:

11408039

(a) Ascomycota (b) Zygomycota

28. Species of mushrooms that are edible are about: 11408040

(a) 400 (b) 200

29. Which one is the largest group of fungi, including over 60,000 species? 11408041

(a) Basidiomycota (b) Zygomycota

30. Reproduction takes place by spores, conidia, fragmentation and budding.

(a) Asexual (b) Sexual 11408042

31. Candida albicans, a yeast, causes oral and vaginal thrush i.e, 11408043

(a) Candidiasis (b) Candidosis

32. Conidia are non-motile, asexual spores which are cut off at the end of modified hyphae called: 11408044

(a) Basidium (b) Ascus

33. Which one is used to relieve one kind of headache migraine? 11408045

(a) Ergotine (b) Aflatoxin

34. A simple breaking of mycelium of some fungal hyphae is called: 11408046

(a) Hormogonium

(b) Fragmentation

(d) Heterogonia

35. Fungi store surplus food usually as lipid droplets or glycogen in the: 11408047

(a) Spore

(b) Mycelium

(d) Sporangiospore

36. In Basidiomycota four haploid sexual spores, borne on each basidium called:

(a) Ascospores 11408048

(b) Conidophores

(d) Zygospores

37. Most sac -fungi have asci inside macroscopic fruiting bodies called:

11408049

(a) Basidia (b) Ascosphores

38. Parasitic fungi absorb nutrients directly from the living host cytoplasm with the help of special hyphae tips called: 11408050

(a) Haustoria (b) Rhizoids (Board 2014)

39. Rhizopus is example of group of fungi:

11408051

(a) Basidiomycota (b) Zygomycota

40. Fungi, alongwith bacteria are the major decomposers of the biosphere: 11408052

(a) Saprobic (b) Saprophytic.

41. Some species of ________trap soil nematodes by forming constricting ring:

11408053

(a) Amanita (b) Penicillium

42. The fungi involved in______ are mostly Ascomycetes and imperfect fungi and Basidiomycetes. 11408054

(a) Mycorrhizae (b) Predation

43. Ecologically very important bio-indicators of air pollution are: (Board 2013) 11408055

(a) Lichens (b) Predators

44. Which one is used to ferment carbohydrate (glucose) to ethanol and carbondioxide?

11408056

(a) Mushrooms (b) Yeasts

45. The number of species of organisms called "fungi" which are known, are approximately: 11408057

(a) 100,000 (b) 100,00

46. Penicillium is also source of antibiotic:

11408058

(a) Tetracycline (b) Penicillin

47. Fungi, in their cell wall, contain: 11408059

(a) Pectin (b) Lignin

48. Mycologists are scientists who study:

(a) Mosses (b) Algae 11408060

49. Chitin in the walls of fungi is more resistant to: 11408061

(a) Decay (b) pH

50. The hyphae which lack septa and are in the form of an elongated multinucleated large cell are called: 11408062

(a) Septate hyphae

(b) Coenocytic hyphae

(d) Both b & c

51. Hyphae may be packed together and organized to form complex reproductive structures such as: 11408063

(a) Mushrooms (b) Puff balls

52. All fungal nuclei are haploid except for transient diploid: 11408064

(a) Spores (b) Zygote

53. Fungi obtain their food by direct absorption from the immediate environment and are thus: 11408065

(a) Ingestive heterotrophs

(b) Phototrophs

(d) Holozoic

54. Various mildews and most rust species are: 11408066

(a) Obligate parasite

(b) Facultative parasite

(d) Both b & c

55. The oyster mushroom (Pleurotus ostreatus) is a: 11408067

(a) Carnivorous (b) Predatory

56. The oyster mushroom paralyses the: 11408068

(a) Earthworms (b) Nematodes

57. Lichens are mutualistic symbiotic associations between: 11408069

(a) Fungi & algae

(b) Fungi & photoautotrophs

(d) Both a & b

58. Most of the visible part of lichen consists of: 11408070

(a) Algae (b) Fungi

59. The algal components of lichens are present within the 11408071

(a) Hyphae (b) Roots

60. The mutualistic associations between certain fungi and roots of vascular plants are called: 11408072

(a) Lichens (b) Mycorrhizae

61. About 95% of all kinds of vascular plants form mycorrhizal associations with:

11408073

(a) Algae (b) Protozoa

62. In endomycorrhizae, the fungal hyphae penetrate the outer cell of the plant root, forming: 11408074

(a) Coils (b) Swellings

63. In ectomycorrhizae, the hyphae surround and extend between the cells but do not penetrate the cell walls of the: 11408075

(a) Roots (b) Shoots

64. Fungi can tolerate a wide range of pH from:

11408076

(a) 3-10 (b) 2-9

65. Unicellular yeasts reproduce by: 11408077

(a) Fragmentation (b) Binary fission

66. Different groups of fungi produce different types of haploid sexual spores, such as: 11408078

(a) Basidiospores (b) Ascospores

67. Classification of fungi into four main groups is based primarily on: 11408079

(a) The type of their sexual reproductive structures

(b) Methods of reproduction

(d) Both a & b

68. Which fungus is found growing on and spoiling moist bread, fruit: 11408080

(a) Rhizopus (b) Penicillium

69. Yeasts are unicellular microscopic fungi, derived from all the three different groups of fungi but mostly: 11408081

(a) zygomycetes

(b) ascomycetes

(d) deteuromycetes

70. Spores (teliospores) of Ustilago tritici are carried by: 11408082

(a) Water (b) Insects

71. Penicillium (blue, green molds), Aspergillus (brown molds), Alternaria, Fusarium, Helminthosporium are some of the economically important genera of:

(a) Zygomycetes 11408083

(b) Ascomycetes

(d) Deuteromycetes

72. Yeasts, morels, truffles, powdery mildews and molds are typical examples of:

11408084

(a) Zygomycetes

(b) Ascomycetes

(d) Deuteromycetes

73. Mushrooms, rusts, smuts, puff balls and bracket fungi are typical examples of:

(a) Zygomycetes 11408085

(b) Ascomycetes

(d) Deuteromycetes

74. Penicillium sp. (blue, green molds) are wide spread saprotrophic species common on decaying: 11408086

(a) Fruit (b) Bread

75. Brush-like arrangement of its conidia is characteristic of: 11408087

(a) Penicillium

(b) Rhizopus

(d) Saccharomyces

76. In saprobes, certain modified hyphae that anchor the fungus to the substrate are called: 11408088

(a) Sporangiophores (b) Stolons

77. Hyphae may be modified in such a way as to enable them to reproduce themselves without depending on external: 11408089

(a) Air (b) Water

78. Many fungi can tolerate temperature extremes -5°C below freezing, and some can tolerate: 11408090

(a) 40°C or more

(b) 50°C or more

(d) 70°C or more

79. Lichens growing on rocks: 11408091

(a) Plain them (b) Rotate them

80. Some fungi are also used for: 11408092

(a) Bioremediation (b) Biogas

81. Beware of poisonous mushrooms called the toadstools, such as: 11408093

(a) Death cap/death angel

(b) Amanita

(d) All of these

82. Reindeer moss is: 11408094

(a) Mycorrhiza (b) Lichen

83. Reindeer moss is used as food for reindeers and some other large animals in: 11408095

(a) Arctic region

(b) Subarctic region

(d) All of these

84. Because of their fermenting ability, yeasts (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) are used in the production of: 11408096

(a) Bread (b) Liquor

85. Penicillium species are used for giving flavour, aroma (smell) and characteristic colour to some: 11408097

(a) Cheese (b) Bread

86. Some species of Aspergillus are used for fermenting/producing soya- sauce and soya- paste from: 11408098

(a) Pea (b) Soybean

87. Citric acid is also obtained from some species of: 11408099

(a) Penicillium (b) Pilobolus

88. Penicillin was discovered in 1928 by:

(a) Watson (b) J. Hogg 11408100

89. Penicillin, first antibiotic to be ever discovered is obtained from: 11408101

(a) Penicillium notatum

(b) Penicillium nigricans

(d) Penicillium flavus

90. Yeasts were the first eukaryotes to be used by: 11408102

(a) Civil engineers

(b) Genetic engineers

(d) Cross breeders

91. In 1983, a functional artificial chromosome was made in: 11408103

(a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

(b) Penicillium notatum

(d) Candida albicans

92. The first eukaryote whose genomic sequence was completely studied in 1996 was: 11408104

(a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

(b) Penicillium notatum

(d) Candida albicans

93. The fungus that has also been used for genetic research is: 11408105

(a) Pink bread mold (b) Neurospora

94. Superficial fungal infections caused by certain imperfect fungi are: 11408106

(a) Ringworm (b) Athlete's foot

95. Some strains of Aspergillus flavus produce one of the most carcinogenic mycotoxins, called: 11408107

(a) Alphatoxins (b) Aflatoxins

96. Wood-rotting fungi destroy: 11408108

(a) Living trees

(b) Structural timber

(d) Logs

97. A pink yeast grows on shower curtains and other moist surfaces is: 11408109

(a) Rhodotorula (b) Neurospora

98. Agaricus sp are: 11408110

(a) Poisonous fungi

(b) Edible fungi

(d) Parasitic fungi

99. 15-50% of world's fruit is lost each year due to: 11408111

(a) American attack

(b) Algal attack

(d) Bacterial attack

100. A single mycelium may produce up to a kilometer of new hyphae in only:

11408112

(a) One minute (b) One hour

101. Ascospores are produced by meiosis inside their characteristic sac like structures called: 11408113

(a) Basidia (b) Conidia

102. Basidiomycotes are named so for their characteristics, club-shaped sexual reproductive structure, the: 11408114

(a) Antheridium (b) Conidium

103. Conidia are found in chains at the tips of special hyphae called: 11408115

(a) Conidiophores

(b) Sporangiophores

(d) Basidiophores

104. Despite absence of sexual reproduction, imperfect fungi show special kind of genetic recombination, called:

11408116

(a) Karyogamy (b) Paedogamy

105. The parasites which can grow parasitically on their host as well as by themselves in artificial growth media are:

11408117

(a) Obligate (b) Facultative

106. Fungi show a characteristic type of mitosis, called: 11408118

(a) Cytomitosis

(b) Nucleomitosis

(d) Nuclear mitosis

107. Histoplasmosis is a serious infection of: 11408119

(a) Lungs (b) Heart

108. Lovastatin is used for lowering blood: 11408120

(a) Pressure (b) Cholesterol

109. Obligate parasites can grow only on their: 11408121

(a) Dead host

(b) Artificial medium

(d) Both b & c

110. Puccinia species are most common:

(a) Smut fungi 11408122

(b) Spitting fungi

(d) Rust fungi

111. Saprobic fungi anchor to the substrate by modified hyphae, the:

(a) Rhizoids 11408123

(b) Stolons

(d) sporangiophores

112. Septate hyphae are divided by cross walls called: 11408124

(a) Diaphragm (b) Septa

113. The body of a fungus (except yeasts) is called: 11408125

(a) Thallus (b) Cadaver

114. The fusion of nuclei is called: 11408126

(a) cytogamy (b) paedogamy

115. The non-hyphal unicellular fungi are: 11408127

(a) Yeasts (b) morels

116. A fungal hypha/cell having 2 nuclei of different genetic types is called: 11408128

(a) Dikaryotic (b) Heterokaryotic

117. Ascomycota produce haploid sexual spores called: 11408129

(a) Basidiospores (b) Ascospores

118. Aspergillus fumigatus causes aspergillosis but only in persons with defective immune system such as:

(a) diabetes (b) hepatitis 11408130

119. Inside each ascus the number of ascospores is: 11408131

(a) 8 (b) 4

120. Antibiotics obtained from a soil fungus and used in organ transplantation for preventing transplant rejection is:

11408132

(a) Penicillin (b) Cyclosporine

121. The disease caused by eating bread made from purple ergot contaminated rye flour is: 11408133

(a) Aspergillosis (b) Candidosis

122. Fungi form mutualistic or symbiotic associations: 11408134

(a) Lichens (b) Mycorrhizae

123. Griseofulvin is used to inhibit growth of: 11408135

(a) Virus (b) Algae

124. Penicillium reproduces asexually by means of naked spores called: 11408136

(a) Conidia (b) Soridia

125. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is the most commonly exploited: 11408137

(a) Mold (b) Yeast

126. Saprotrophs (saprobes) are decomposers that obtain their food directly from:11408138

(a) Living host

(b) Living guest

(d) Inorganic matter

127. Spores are produced inside the reproductive structures called: 11408139

(a) Basidia (b) Asci

128. The fusion of cytoplasm is called:

11408140

(a) Plasmogamy (b) Karyogamy

129. Ustilago species is most common:

(a) Rust (b) Smut 11408141

130. The spores formed in Phylum zygomycota of fungi are called: 11408142

(a) Ascospores

(b) Basidiospores

(d) Conidion

131. Some fungi are active predators, for example: 11408143

(a) Amanita (b) Saccharomyces

132. Which one is a type of fruticose lichen? 11408144

(a) Ramalina (b) Dermatocarpon

133. Which one of the following is dipolid? 11408145

(a) Zygospore (b) Ascospore

134. Which one is a type of foliose lichen? 11408146

(a) Ramalina (b) Dermetrocarpon

135. Some fungi have coenocytic hyphae, for example: 11408147

(a) Rhizopus (b) Saccharomyces

136. Non-septate hyphae are present in members of: 11408148

(a) Zygomycota (b) Ascomycota

SELECTED FROM BOARD PAPERS

i. Fungi, in their cell wall, contain: (Board 2007) 11408149

(a) pectin (b) lignin

ii. Some strains of Aspergillus flavus produce one of the most carcinogenic mycotoxins, called: (Board 2008) 11408150

(a) alphatoxins (b) aflatoxins

iii. Lovastatin is used for lowering blood : (Board 2006) 11408151

(a) pressure (b) cholesterol

iv. Puccinia species are most common (Board 2005) 11408152

(a) smut fungi (b) spitting fungi

v. The mushrooms whose gills glow in the dark are: (Board 2004) 11408153

(a) Amanita verna (b) Truffles

(d) Omphalotus olearius

vi. Most of the visible parts of the lichen consists of: (Board 2005) 11408154

(a) Algae (b) Fungi

vii. Imperfect fungi is also called: 11408155

(Board 2007)

(a) Ascomycetes (b) Basidiomycetes

viii. Foot and mouth disease is caused by:

11408156

(a) Fungi (b) Bacteria (Board 2012)

ix. Which is used to inhibit the fungal growth? (Board 2013) 11408157

(a) Lovastatin (b) Cyclosporin

Short Questions

1. Define Absorptive heterotrophs.

11408158

2. What is the difference between obligate and facultative parasites? 11408159

3. How predator fungi obtain their food?

11408160

4. What are plant-like characters found in fungi? 11408161

5. What animal-like characters are present in fungi? 11408162

6. What are the differences between fungi and animals? 11408163

7. On what basis do you say that fungi are different from all the organisms? 11408164

8. Why non-septate hyphae are called coenocytic hyphae? 11408165

9. What are Mutualists? 11408166

10. What are lichens? 11408167

11. What is the role of the fungi and algae in lichens? 11408168

12. What are Mycorrhizae? 11408169

13. Name the different types of Mycorrhizae. 11408170

14. What are characteristics of spores? 11408171

15. What is budding? (Board 2015) 11408172

16. What are the bases of classification of fungi? 11408173

17. Define major-groups of fungi with examples: 11408174

18. Why are rusts and smuts called "rusts" and "smuts"? 11408175

19. Define parasexuality.

(Board 2015) 11408176

20. Why molds can grow on oranges and jelly kept in a refrigerator? 11408177

21. What are bioindicators? 11408178

22. What do you mean by Bioremediation? 11408179

23. Name the two poisonous mushrooms.

11408180

24. Name some fungal diseases of plants. 11408181

25. What are aflatoxins? 11408182

26. Name the yeast that grows on shower curtains and other moist surfaces. 11408183

27. What is mycelium? 11408184

28. What is the number of known species of fungi? 11408185

29. What are hyphae? 11408186

30. Differentiate between septate and non-septate hyphae. (Board 2015) 11408187

31. What are functions of hyphae? 11408188

32. What are different types of Fungi on the basis of Nutrition? 11408189

33. What are Saprotrophs (saprobes)? Also give examples of saprotroph fungi.

11408190

34. How saprotrophic fungi obtain food? 11408191

35. What are the major decomposers of the biosphere? 11408192

36. What do you know about parasitic fungi? 11408193

37. What is the habitat of fungi? 11408194

38. What are different methods of reproduction in fungi? 11408195

39. Differentiate between plasmogamy and karyogamy. (Board 2015) 11408196

40. How spores of fungi are dispersed? 11408197

41. What are conidia and conidiophores? 11408198

42. Differentiate between zygospores, ascospores and basidiospores. 11408199

43. What are asci and ascocarps? 11408200

44. What is the largest group of fungi? 11408201

45. What are yeasts? 11408202

46. Why are basidiomycota or club fungi the most familiar fungi? 11408203

47. What are the most common rust and smut fungi? 11408204

48. What are some of the economically important genera of Deuteromycetes?

11408205

49. What is Penicillium? 11408206

50. Give two characteristics of fungi for their land adaptations. 11408207

51. What are toadstools? 11408208

52. What is Reindeer moss? 11408209

53. Where fungi are used in food industry? Give two examples. 11408210

54. What is the importance of Aspergillus in food industry? (Board 2010) 11408211

55. What is Candidiasis or candidosis?

11408212

56. Why should any moldy human food or animal forage product be discarded?

11408214

57. What is ergotism? 11408215

58. What types of damages caused by saprobic fungi? 11408216

59. What is aspergillosis? 11408217

60. Name 5 antibiotics obtained from fungi. 11408218

61. What are ringworm and athlete's foot? 11408219

62. What is hypha? What is the advantage of having incomplete septa?

11408220

What is the composition of fungal cell wall and how is this composition advantageous to fungi? 11408221

63. To which phylum do the yeasts belong? How they differ from other fungi?

11408222

64. Name sexual and asexual spores of Ascomycetes. 11408223

65. What are mycorrhizae? 11408224

66. By what means can individuals in imperfect fungi be classified? 11408225

67. Give a single characteristic that differentiates Zygomycota from Basidiomycota. 11408226

68. Why is green mold more likely to contaminate an orange kept in a refrigerator than are bacteria? 11408227

69. What is a fungus? 11408228

70. State two parallel characteristics of Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes. 11408229

71. Same enzymes of fungi are useful on one hand and harmful on other. Discuss.

11408230

72. Name any four important fungal diseases of plants. (Board 2015) 11408231

73. Name any four important fungal diseases of humans. 11408232

74. What is loose smut of wheat? 11408233

75. Differentiate between the members of each of the following pairs. 11408234

76. Name three types of lichens with one example of each. 11408235

SELECTED FROM BOARD PAPERS

Q.1 Name different types of Mycorrhizae. Or differentiate between endomycorrhizae and ectomycorrhizae. (Board 2007) 11408236

Q.2 What is mycelium?(Board 2007, 08) 11408237

Q.3 What are conidia and conidiophores? (Board 2008) 11408238

Q.4 What is histoplasmosis?

(Board 2005, 13, 14) 11408239

Q.5 What is the importance of mycorrhizae for plants?(Board 2006) 11408240

Q.6 What is budding? (Board 2007) 11408241

Q.7 What is fungus? (Board-2007) 11408242

Q.8 Give features of Zygomycota.

(Board 2007) 11408243

Q.9 Write a brief note on mycorrhizae. (Board 2007) 11408244

Q.10 Compare ascus with basidium.

(Board 2008) 11408245

Q.11 Differentiate between lichens and mycorrhizae. (Board 2013) 11408246

Unit 9

KINGDOM PLANTAE

Objectives + Short Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

BRYOPHYTES

1. Which is a Bryophyte? 11409028

(a) Club mosses (b) Mosses

2. One good example of Hepaticopsida is: 11409029

(a) Anthoceros (b) Psilotum
(c) Funaria (d) Marchantia

3. The earliest group of vascular plants is: 11409030

(a) Psilopsida (b) Lycopsida
(c) Pteropsida (d) Sphenopsida

4. When leaf has a single undivided vein such a leaf is called: 11409031

(a) Megaphyll (b) microphyll
(c) microphyll (d) none of the above

5. All seed producing plants are called:

(a) pteridophytes 11409032

(b) spermatophytes

(d) bryophytes

6. Known species of plants are about: 11409033

(a) 260,000 (b) 160,000
(c) 360,000 (d) 460,000

7. First plants to colonize land were:

(a) Bryophytes 11409034

(b) pteridophytes

(d) spermatophytes

8. In bryophytes, fertilization takes place in:

(a) Megasporangium 11409035

(b) water
(c) embryo sac

(d) microsporangium

9. Bryophytes are divided into: 11409036

(a) Hepaticopsida (b) Bryopsida
(c) Anthoceropsida (d) All of the above

10. The archegonia and antheridia form clusters and are mixed with: 11409037

(a) Sterile hairs (b) paraphyses
(c) both a & b (d) symphysis

11. The spore of a moss develops into an alga like structure the: 11409038

(a) Protonema (b) Diakinesis
(c) Zygonema (d) Pachynema

12. In hornworts at the junction of foot and spore producing region there is a band of:

(a) xylem tissue 11409039

(b) meristematic tissue

(d) parenchyma tissue

13. The sporophyte of bryophytes is usually differentiated into foot, seta and: 11409040

(a) slime (b) calyptra
(c) capsule (d) perigynous

14. In mosses and liverworts, absorbing and anchoring organs, called: 11409041

(a) rhizomes (b) roots
(c) rhizoids (d) rhizobium

15. Female gametes formed within archegonia are termed as: 11409042

(a) Seeds (b) ovules
(c) eggs (d) antherozoids

16. Male gametes produced by antheridia are called: 11409043

(a) Seeds (b) ovules
(c) eggs (d) antherozoids

17. The sporophyte is diploid (2n) which produces in sporangia one kind of haploid spores by: 11409044

(a) Meiosis (b) mitosis
(c) nuclear mitosis (d) amitosis

18. In bryophytes, after a resting period the zygote develops through mitotic divisions into a diploid: 11409045

(a) Sporophyte (b) embryo
(c) foetus (d) gametophyte

19. Heterogamy is the production of two types of: 11409046

(a) Spores (b) gametes
(c) sperms (d) eggs

20. Bryophytes belonging to class Hepaticopsida are called: 11409047

(a) Mosses (b) Hornworts

21. The simplest of all Bryophytes are:

11409048

(a) mosses (b) hornworts

22. Some liverworts are differentiated into a false stem, and leaves e.g., 11409049

(a) Porella (b) Marchantia

23. In liverworts the sex organs develop on special branches on gametophyte, called the antheridiophores and the archegon- iophores as in: 11409050

(a) Porella (b) Marchantia

24. Examples of mosses are: 11409051

(a) Funaria (b) Polytrichum
(c) Lycopodium (d) both a & b

25. Example of Anthoceropsida is: 11409052

(a) Porella (b) Marchantia
(c) Anthoceros (d) Polytrichum

26. The phenomenon of alternation of gametophyte and sporophyte in the life history of a plant is called: 11409053

(a) Alternation of generation
(b) Polygenerations

(d) Alternation of plants

27. There are only two living genera in Psilopsida: 11409054

(a) Psilotum & Psilophyton
(b) Psilotum & Tmesipeteris

(d) Cooksonia & Tmesipeteris

28. Protonema is developed in: 11409155

(a) Liverworts (b) Hornworts
(c) Horse tails (d) Mosses

Pteridophytes

1. When the frond is immature and young, it is coiled, this pattern of development is called: 11409056

(a) Nutation

(b) circinate vernation

(d) reticulate venation

2. Tracheophytes are called vascular plants because of the presence of vascular tissue i.e. 11409057

(a) Xylem (b) phloem

3. Stem of Psilopsida is differentiated into an underground rhizome and aerial part, both are: 11409058

(a) Dichotomously branched

(b) monotomously branched

(d) erectile branched

4. Large leaves having divided veins and veinlets with an expanded leaf blade or lamina are known as: 11409059

(a) Microphylls (b) megaphylls
(c) both a & b (d) none of the above

5. Lycopods were the first plants that formed the true: 11409060

(a) leaves & stem

(b) leaves & flowers

(d) leaves & roots

6. Primitive vascular land plants produce one kind of spores, a condition called: 11409061

(a) Homospory (b) heterospory
(c) monospory (d) unispory

7. The process of evolution of leaf was very slow and gradual which completed in more than: 11409062

(a) 1-10 million years

(b) 5-15 million years

(d) 20-25 million years

8. Arrangement of unequal dichotomies in one plane is termed as: 11409063

(a) Overtopping (b) fusion
(c) planation (d) webbing

9. Overtopping and planation was followed by a process known as: 11409064

(a) fusion (b) webbing
(c) spreading (d) both a & b

10. During the course of evolution, fusion of the vascular strands resulted in: 11409065

(a) Net venation

(b) reticulate venation

(d) both a & b

11. In Lycopsida, the arrangement of leaves is:

(a) Spiral (b) opposite11409066
(c) both a & b (d) alternate

12. Both, stem and rhizome are dichotomously branched in: 11409067

(a) Psilopsida (b) Lycopsida
(c) Sphenopsida (d) Pteropsida

13. In Lycopsida, the sporophyte may have sporangia of one kind as in: 11409068

(a) Selaginella (b) Lycopodium
(c) Marchantia (d) Psilotum

14. In Lycopsida, the sporophyte may have sporangia of two kinds as in: 11409069

(a) Selaginella (b)Lycopodium
(c) Marchantia (d) Psilotum

15. Selaginella resembles seed producing plants (spermatophytes) because of its:

11409070

(a) Homospory (b) heterospory
(c) polyspory (d) sporulation

16. Lycopsids are called club mosses spike mosses because of their club/spike-shaped strobili and small leaves resembling:

(a) Ferns (b) liverworts 11409071
(c) mosses (d) pinus

17. Plants belonging to Sphenopsida are also called Arthrophytes because the whole plant body is composed of large number of: 11409072

(a) Pieces (b) Fragments
(c) Cells (d) Joints

18. The sporangia are borne on structures called sporangiophores , aggregated to form: 11409073

(a) Strobili (b) Cones
(c) Congregation (d) Flock

19. The leaves are called fronds in class: 11409074

(a) Angiospermae (b) Filicineae
(c) Gymnospermae (d) Sphenopsida

20. The Filicineae or Ferns are mostly: 11409075

(a) Shade loving plants
(b) moisture loving plants

(d) both a & b

21. Dryopteris, Pteridium, Adiantum and Pteris etc., are examples of: 11409076

(a) bryophytes (b) angiosperms
(c) ferns (d) gymnosperms

22. Adiantum is a fern growing at: 11409077

(a) Moist walls (b) water courses
(c) drains (d) All of the above

23. Short, thick and underground stem is found in: 11409078

(a) Adiantum (b) Marchantia
(c) Pinus (d) Dalbergia

24. Stem of Adiantum, is usually unbranched, horizontally growing and called: 11409079

(a) Rhizoid (b) Rhizome
(c) Rhizobium (d) Both a & b

25. Roots that arise from the lower side of the rhizome are called: 11409080

(a) fibrous roots

(b) tap roots

26. The leaflets show dichotomous venation in: 11409081

(a) Funaria (b) Ulva
(c) Anthoceros (d) Adiantum

27. What is born on the underside of reflexed lobes of the margins of leaflets of Adiantum? 11409082

(a) pollen grain (b) sporangia

28. Sori are protected by the bent margin of the leaflet, forming false: 11409083

(a) Indusium (b) Sheath
(c) Pods (d) Covering

29. Which does not show heteromorphic alternation of generation? 11409084

(a) Adiantum (b) Ulva
(c) Funaria (d) Marchantia

30. Each sorus consists of a number of:

11409085

(a) archegonia (b) antheridia
(c) sporangia (d) capsules

31. The leaves bearing sporangia are called: 11409086

(a) sporangiophylls (b) leaflets
(c) megaphylls (d) sporophylls

32. In Adiantum, the edge of the capsule is made up of: 11409087

(a) annulus (b) stomium
(c) calyptra (d) both a & b

33. In Adiantum, the annulus occupies three fourth of the edge and remaining one fourth is the: 11409088

(a) stump (b) stomium
(c) stunt (d) stem

34. When a spore of Adiantum, falls on a moist soil, it germinates at a suitable temperature and produces a: 11409089

(a) haploid gametophyte (b) prothallus

35. The prothallus is an autotrophic, small, flat, having the shape of: 11409090

(a) heart (b) kidney
(c) bean (d) diamond

36. At its longest diameter, size of prothallus is about: 11409091

(a) 8 cm (b) 8 mm
(c) 8 dm (d) 8A⁰

37. The prothallus is: 11409092

(a) monoecious (b) dioecious

38. In the mature prothallus, archegonia occur near the notch and the antheridia are scattered among the: 11409093

(a) archegonia (b) rhizoids

39. The archegonium consists of: 11409094

(a) venter & stalk (b) ovary & style
(c) venter & neck (d) ovary & neck

40. First complete seeds appeared about

365 million years ago during late:

(Board 2013) 11409095

(a) Ordovician times (b) Silurian times
(c) Cambrian times (d) Devonian times

41. Technically a seed may be defined as a fertilized: 11409096

(a) egg (b) ovule
(c) oospore (d) embryo

42. The microspores produced inside microsporangia germinated to form:

(a) male gametophyte 11409097
(b) microgametophyte

(d) both a & b

43. The megaspores germinated to form:

(a) female gametophyte 11409098
(b) megagametophyte

(d) male gametophyte

44. The single healthy megaspore retained with the megasporangium germinates to form an egg containing female gametophyte called: 11409099

(a) embryo sac (b) foetus sac
(c) kid sac (d) seedling sac

45. Which one is heterosporous? 11409100

(a) Lycopodium (b) Psilotum

46. All of the following are extinct except: 11409102

(a) Rhynia (b) Cooksonia
(c) Psilotum (d) Psilophyton

GYMNOSPERMS

1. Ginkgo belongs to class: 11409103

(a) angiopsemae (b) Filicineae
(c) gymnospermae (d) anthoceropsida

2. The term gymnospermae literally means:

(a) enclosed seeded 11409104

(b) naked seeded

(d) hidden seeded

3. Cycas (sago-palm), Pinus (Pines), Taxus (Yew), Picea (Hemlock) and Cedrus (deodar) and Ginkgo are important genera of: 11409105

(a) gymnosperms

(b) angiosperms

(d) bryophytes

4. The megasporangium (Ovule) after fertilization is transformed into a seed and the integuments becoming the: 11409106

(a) fruit (b) fruit walls
(c) seed coats (d) embryo sac

5. Gymnosperms constitute about one-third of the world's: 11409107

(a) fruits (b) forests
(c) vegetables (d) furnitures

6. The gymnosperms are heterosporous which produce seeds but no: 11409108

(a) fruits (b) flowers
(c) wood (d) fruits and slowers

7. The Cones of Pinus which are small in size and are produced in clusters on an axis are:

(a) male (b) female 11409109
(c) both a & b (d) none

8. In Pinus more than one egg can be fertilized to form several: 11409110

(a) embryos (b) zygotes
(c) seedlings (d) oospores

9. The ovule consists of an integument and a tissue, the: 11409111

(a) parenchyma (b) endosperm
(c) nucellus (d) nutation

10. Clitoria ternatea is used against: 11409112

(a) dog bite (b) insect bite
(c) horse bite (d) snake bite

11. Arabic gum is obtained from: 11409113

(a) Acacia nilotica (b) A. Senegal
(c) Acacia catechu (d) Both a & b

12. Sugar is obtained from the juice of:

(a) Saccharum officinarum 11409114

(b) Saccharum munja

(c) Oryza sativa

(d) Avena sativa

13. Which plants are said to be the amphibians of the plant world: 11409115

(a) pteridophytes

(b) bryophytes

(d) spermatophytes

14. The cones of Pinus which are large and conspicuous are: 11409116

(a) male (b) female
(c) both a & b (d) none of these

15. Each megasporangium has a single diploid megaspore: 11409117

(a) parent cell (b) father cell
(c) mother cell (d) daughter cell

16. The embryo sac of Pinus contains one to several: 11409118

(a) archegonia (b) antheridia
(c) gammules (d) buds

ANGIOSPERMS

1. It makes up 235,000 of the 360,000 known species of plants. 11409119

(a) angiosperms (b) gymnosperms
(c) ferns (d) bryophytes

2. The term Angiosperms literally means: 11409120

(a) Enclosed seeded (b) naked seeded
(c) open seeded (d) hidden seeded

3. A flower is a modified shoot which consists of: 11409121

(a) pedicel

(b) thalamus or torus

(d) All of the above

4. An ovule is an integumented indehiscent:

(a) microsporangium 11409122

(b) megasporangium

(d) seed

5. A microspore of seed plants that contains the micro-gametophyte including the gametes is called a: 11409123

(a) grain (b) pollen
(c) pollen grain (d) cereal grain

6. Double fertilization is a special process found in: (Board 2015) 11409124

(a) Ferns (b) Bryophytes
(c) Gymnosperms (d) Angiosperms

7. The sepals and petals are: 11409125

(a) Non-essential parts
(b) Non-reproductive parts

(d) both a & b

8. The stamens and carpels are the: 11409126

(a) Essential parts
(b) reproductive parts

(d) both a & b

9. In angiosperms, the second male gamete fuses with the secondary nucleus to form: 11409127

(a) ectosperm (b) endosperm
(c) mesosperm (d) none of these

10. The sepals and petals attract insects for: 11409128

(a) Food (b) Pollination
(c) Fertilization (d) Reproduction

11. The microspore divides by mitotic divisions to form: 11409129

(a) two male gametes

(b) the tube nucleus

(d) both a & b

12. The integuments of the ovule form:

(a) testa (b) tegmen 11409130

13. Ovary wall develops into the: 11409131

(a) fruit (b) vegetable

14. Which one of the following is the characteristics of monocots? 11409132

(a) 4 or 5 petals

(b) netted veins

(d) woody stems

15. Anther finally contains: 11409133

(a) Megaspore mother cells

(b) Megaspores

(d) Microspores

FAMILIES

1. Rosaceae is also called: 11409134

(a) pea family (b) rose family

2. Fabaceae is also called: 11409135

(a) potato family (b) peanut family

3. Mimosaceae is also called: 11409136

(a) Grass family (b) Poa family
(c) Cassia family (d) Acacia family

4. Solanaceae is also called: 11409137

(a) potato family (b) tobacco family

5. Caeselpiniaceae is also called: 11409138

(a) grass family (b) Mimosa family
(c) Cassia family (d) Acacia family

6. Poaceae is also called: 11409139

(a) Corn family (b) Grass family

7. Rose family consists of about 100 genera and: 11409140

(a) 500 species (b)1000 species

8. In Pakistan rose family is represented by:

(a) 9 genera 21 species 11409141
(b) 19 genera 113 species

9. Pyrus (pear); Rosa (rose); Malus (apple); Fragaria (strawberry) etc. are familiar plants of: 11409142

(a) Rosaceae (b) Fabaceae
(c) Solanaceae

(d) Caesalpiniaceae

10. It is a dry, indehiscent fruit in which fruit wall is completely fused with seed coat. 11409143

(a) dryopsis (b) faryopsis
(c) caryopsis (d) synopsis

11. Medicago sativa (Alfalfa) is one of the world's best forage crops for: 11409144

(a) donkeys (b) cows
(c) goats (d) horses

12. The heartwood of Haematoxylon yields the dye: 11409145

(a) haematoxylin (b) haemocyanin
(c) haemoglobin (d) haemoerythrin

13. Lycopersicum esculentum is commonly known as: 11409146

(a) potato (b) kachaloo
(c) tomato (d) kachnar

14. Scientific name of shisham is: 11409147

(a) Capsicum annum

(b) Dalbergia sissoo

(c) Cassia fistula

(d) Zea mays

15. Apple, Pear Almond, Apricot, and Strawberry etc., are important fruits of:

(a) Graminae 11409148

(b) Rosaceae

(d) Caesalpiniaceae

16. The most widely cultivated genus of family Rosaceae for decorative purpose is:

(a) Pyrus (b) Malus 11409149
(c) Rosa (d) Fragaria

17. The branches of Crataegus provide excellent: 11409150

(a) walking sticks (b) wood
(c) clubs (d) both a & b

18. The wood of Pyrus pastia is used for making: 11409151

(a) tobacco pipes (b) walking sticks
(c) furniture (d) baskets

19. Solanaceae is a family of about: 11409152

(a) 90 genera & 200 species
(b) 90 genera & 2000 species

20. In Pakistan, Solanaceae is represented by:

(a) 11 genera & 22 species 11409153
(b) 12 genera & 43 species

21. Solamum tuberosum (Potato), Nicotiana tabacum (Tobacco), Lycopersicum esculentum (Tomato), Capsicum frutescene (Red pepper) are familiar plants of family: 11409154

(a) Graminae (b) Rosaceae

22. The most important plant in family Solanaceae is: 11409155

(a) Solanum tuberosum
(b) Solanum nigrum

23. Lycopersicum esculentum (tomato), the favourite home garden vegetable, was once believed to be: 11409156

(a) condiment (b) poisonous
(c) honey (d) carcinogenic

24. The fruit of Capsicum annum and Capsicum frutenscens are rich in: 11409157

(a) vitamin A & B (b) vitamin C & B
(c) vitamin C & A (d) vitamin C & E

25. Physalis (Ground-Cherry) produces an edible fruit enclosed in a bladder like persistent calyx the husk, the name
husk: 11409158

(a) potatoes (b) cherries
(c) peppers (d) tomatoes

26. The leaves of which plant are dried and made into tobacco: 11409159

(a) Nicotiana tabacum
(b) Dalbergia sisso

(c) Zea mays

(d) Mimosa pudica

27. Atropa belladonna and Datura, which are rich in atropine and daturine respectively, are used: 11409160

(a) agriculturally (b) medicinally
(c) technically (d) beautifully

28. Petunia, Nicotiana, Cestrum and Solanum are some ornamental plants of family:

11409161

(a) Rosaceae (b) Mimosaceae

29. Fabaceae (Papilionaceae) is a family of about: 11409162

(a) 100 genera & 6000 species
(b) 200 genera & 7000 species

30. In Pakistan, Fabaceae is represented by:

(a) 82 genera & 587 species 11409163
(b) 62 genera & 383 species

31. Lathyrus odoratus (Sweet pea), Arachis hypogea (Peanut), Gicer arietinum (Chick Pe(a) and Dalbergia sissoo (Shisham) are familiar plants of family: 11409164

(a) Fabaceae (b) Papilionaceae

32. Vicia, Melilotus and Trifolium are cultivated as main: 11409165

(a) cereal crops (b) ornamental plants

33. Many trees such as Butea, Dalburgia etc., of family Fabaceae provide excellent timber for: 11409166

(a) building (b) furniture
(c) fuel (d) all a, b, c

34. The seeds of Arachis hypogea Peanut are: 11409167

(a) edible (b) inedible
(c) poisonous (d) sweet

35. The seeds of Arachis hypogea are used for extraction of peanut oil which after hydrogenation is used as a: 11409168

(a) massage oil (b) vegetable oil

36. Indigo dyes are obtained from Indigofera tinctoria and Butea monosperma, yielding yellow dye from: 11409169

(a) stem (b) roots
(c) flowers (d) leaves

37. Glycyrrhiza glabra are used for: 11409170

(a) whooping cough (b) yellow fever

38. The red and white seeds used by jewellers as weights called "ratti" are obtained from:

(a) Cassia fistula 11409171

(b) Oryza sativa

(d) Abrus precatorious

39. Lathyrus, Lupinus, Clitoria, Butea etc., are some important ornamental plants of family: 11409172

(a) Fabaceae

(b) Poaceae

(d) Rosaceae

40. Family Caesalpiniaceae includes about:

(a) 52 genera & 230 species 11409173
(b) 152 genera & 2300 species

41. In Pakistan the family Caesalpiniaceae is represented by: 11409174

(a) 6 genera & 16 species
(b) 10 genera & 40 species

42. Tamarindus indica, Cassia fistula, Bauhinia variegata are familiar plants of family: 11409175

(a) Fabaceae (b) Poaceae
(c) Mimosaceae (d) Caesalpiniaceae

43. The leaves of Cassia alata are used to cure: 11409176

(a) ring worm (b) skin diseases

44. Cassia senna and C. obovata are cultivated for the leaves which yield the drug:

(a) Senna (b) Obovata 11409177

45. Oil extracted from the seeds of Cynometera cauliflora is applied for:

(a) AIDS (b) hepatitis 11409178
(c) bone fractures (d) skin diseases

46. Bauhinia variegata (Kachnar), Cassia fistula (Amaltas), Parkinsonia, etc., are common ornamental plants of family:

(a) Fabaceae (b) Poaceae 11409179

47. The leaves and flower's bud of Bauhinia variegata are used as: 11409180

(a) ointment (b) vegetable
(c) fodder (d) ornament

48. The acidic fruit of Tamarindus indica are edible and are rich in: 11409181

(a) citric acid (b) acetic acid
(c) tartaric acid (d) vitamin C & A

49. The bark of Bauhinia variegata and Tamarindus indica is used in: 11409182

(a) stuffing (b) tanning
(c) medicine (d) agriculture

50. Family Mimosaceae includes about:

(a) 6 genera & 800 species 11409183
(b) 43 genera & 1800 species

51. In Pakistan Family Mimosaceae is represented by: 11409184

(a) 4 genera & 9 species
(b) 6 genera & 16 species

52. Acacia nilotica, Albizzia lebbek, Mimosa pudica (Touch me not), Prosopus glandulosa are familiar plants of Family: 11409185

(a) Fabaceae (b) Poaceae
(c) Mimosaceae (d) Caesalpiniaceae

53. The wood of Albizzia lebbek is used in: 11409186

(a) cabinet work (b) railway carriages
(c) Electric poles (d) both a & b

54. Katha, a dye is obtained from: 11409187

(a) Acacia nilotica

(b) Acacia catechu
(c) Acacia arabica

(d) Acacia melanoxylon

55. The leaves of Acacia nilotica are used as: 11409188

(a) sun block (b) blood purifier
(c) laxative (d) snake bite

56. Mimosa pudica and Acacia melanoxylon are some common garden plants of familiy: 11409189

(a) Fabaceae (b) Poaceae
(c) Mimosaceae (d) Caesalpiniaceae

57. A few species of Prosopis are planted in the arid zone for: 11409190

(a) breaking wind pressure
(b) skin diseases

58. Family Poaceae (Gramineae) includes about: 11409191

(a) 600 genera &10,000 species
(b) 600 genera & 1000 species

59. In Pakistan Family Poaceae is represented by: 11409192

(a) 108 genera & 402 species
(b) 158 genera & 492 species

60. Triticum vulgare, Wheat; Zea mays, Corn; Avena sativa, Oats; Oryza sativa, Rice; Bambusa, Bamboo; Saccharam 0fficinarum, Sugar cane etc., are familiar plants of family: 11409193

(a) Fabaceae (b) Caesalpiniaceae
(c) Mimosaceae (d) Poaceae

61. Cereals and millets which constitute the chief food stuff of mankind belong to family: 11409194

(a) Graminae (b) Poaceae
(c) Both a & b (d) Solanaceae

62. _____ provides tobacco pipes. 11409195

(a) Pyrus Pastia (b) Crataegus
(c) Almond (d) Fragaria

SELECTED FROM BOARD PAPERS

i. The female gametophyte in angiosperms is called: (Board 2007) 11409196

(a) embryo Sac (b) archegonium
(c) Seed (d) seedling sac

ii. Pyrus (pear); Rosa (rose); Malus (apple); Fragaria (strawberry) etc., are familiar plants of: (Board 2007) 11409197

(a) Rosaceae (b) Fabaceae

iii. A haploid spermatiozoid (antherozoi(d) fuses with haploid egg or oosphere to produce: (Board 2004) 11409198

(a) Haploid osspore (b) Zygote

iv. At the tips of the branches in psilopsida are produced: (Board 2005) 11409199

(a) Archegonia (b) Antheridia
(c) Sporangia (d) Zygote

v. Tracheophytes are further sub-divided into: (Board 2007) 11409200

(a) 2 subdivisions (b) 3 subdivisions

vi. Small leaves having a single undivided vein are called: (Board-2007) 11409201

(a) megaphylls (b) microphylls

vii. In Anthoceros sporophyte at the junction of foot and spore producing region, there is band of: (Board-2008) 11409202

(a) Paraphysis

(b) Meristematic tissue

(d) Xylem

viii. The megasporophylls bearing ovules are not folded and joined at the margins to form an ovary: (Board-2008) 11409203

(a) Filicineae (b) Monocotyledonae

ix. Pulses producing plants belong to the family: (Board 2014, 15) 11409204

(a) Rosaceae (b) Solanaceae

x. Living genus of psilopsida is:

(Board 2013, 2015) 11409205

(a) Cooksonia (b) Psilophyton

Short Questions

BRYOPHYTES

Q.1 What do you understand by phylogenetic system of classification?

11409206

Q.2 Name the major divisions of Kingdom plantae. 11409207

Q.3 What is heteromorphic alternation of generations? 11409208

Q.4 Define Bryophytes. 11409209

Q.5 Give four examples of Psilopsida, two of living and two of extinct genera. 11409210

Q.6 Name the classes of Pteropsida. 11409211

Q.7 What is rhizome? 11409212

Q.8 What is indeterminate growth? 11409213

Q.9 What is antherozoid? 11409214

Q.10 What do you mean by heterogamy?

11409215

Q.11 What are classes of division Bryophyta? (Board 2013) 11409216

Q.12 Name the subdivisions of Division Tracheophyta - (Vascular Plants). 11409217

Q.13 What were the first plants to colonize land? From where they have evolved? 11409218

Q.14 How do materials transport in bryophytes? 11409219

Q.15 What are rhizoids? 11409220

Q.16 What are types of sex organs present in bryophytes? 11409221

Q.17 What do you know about the gametes of bryophytes? 11409222

Q.18 How does fertilization occur in bryophytes? 11409223

Q.19 What do you know about the zygote and embryo of bryophyte? 11409224

Q.20 What are characteristics of sporophyte of bryophyte? 11409225

Q.21 What is the importance of alternation of generation? 11409226

Q.22 Give two characters for adaptation of bryophytes to land. 11409227

Q.23 What are liverworts? Give some examples. 11409228

Q.24 How do fertilization and zygote formation occur in Hepaticopsida? 11409229

Q.25 What is the habitat of mosses or Bryopsida? 11409230

Q.26 Give examples of mosses. 11409231

Q.27 Differentiate between antheridiophores and archegoniophores. 11409232

Q.28 What are paraphyses? 11409233

Q.29 What is protonema? 11409234

Q.30 How sporophyte of Anthoceropsida (hornworts) differ from those of Hepaticopsida (liverworts) and Bryopsida (mosses)? 11409234

Q.31 What is Anthoceros? 11409236

TRACHEOPHYTES

Q.1 What are vascular tissues? 11409237

Q.2 Differentiate between homospory and heterospory. 11409238

Q.3 Differentiate between microphylls and megaphylls. 11409239

Q.4 What is overtopping? 11409240

Q.5 What is planation? 11409241

Q.6 What is reticulate or net venation? 11409242

Q.7 What is webbing? 11409243

Q.8 What types of leaves are present in Lycopsids? 11409244

Q.9 What type of gametophyte is present in Psiloposida? 11409245

Q.10 How many types of sporangia are found in Lycopsids? 11409246

Q.11 Why are lycopsids called club mosses/spike mosses? 11409247

Q.12 Why are sphenopsids called arthrophytes? 11409248

Q.13 What are sporangiophores? 11409249

FERNS

Q.1 What are fronds? 11409250

Q.2 What is habitat of ferns? 11409251

Q.3 Give examples of ferns. 11409252

Q.4 What are type of stem and root present in Adiantum? 11409253

Q.5 What are sori? 11409254

Q.6 What are annulus and stomium? 11409255

Q.7 What is false indusium? 11409256

Q.8 What is prothallus? 11409257

Q.9 How antheridia and archegonia of Adiantum differ from each other? 11409258

Q.10 Define the following: seed, ovule and integuments. 11409259

GYMNOSPERMS

Q.1 What are spermatocytes? 11409260

Q.2 What is embryo sac? 11409261

Q.3 Why seeds are naked in gymnosperms? 11409262

Q.4 Name some important genera of gymnosperms. 11409263

Q.5 What type of cones are present in Pinus? 11409264

Q.6 How ovules of gymnosperms differ from those of angiosperms? 11409265

Q.7 What do you know about the male gametophyte and pollen grain of Pinus?

11409266

Q.8 How pollen or male gamete of Pinus is transferred to female gametophyte?

11409267

Q.9 What are characteristics of megasporangium and female cone of Pinus?

11409268

Q.10 How pollination and fertilization occur in Pinus? 11409269

Q.11 What happens after fertilization in Pinus? 11409270

ANGIOSPERMS

Q.1 What is a flower? 11409271

Q.2 What are essential and non-essential parts of flower? 11409272

Q.3 What are non-essential parts of flowers?' Why are they said to be non-essential? 11409273

Q.4 What is the role of sepals and petals in flower? 11409274

Q.5 What are stamen and carpel? 11409275

Q.6 What is male gametophyte of angiosperms? 11409276

Q.7 What is female gametophytes? 11409277

Q.8 What is double fertilization? (Board 2014, 2015) 11409278

Q.9 What is endosperm? 11409279

Q.10 What is the advantage of double fertilization? 11409280

Q.11 Name the subclasses of class Angiospermae. 11409281

FAMILY ROSACEAE

Q.1 What are familiar plants of family Rosaceae rose family? 11409282

Q.2 What are important fruits of family Rosaceae rose family? 11409283

Q.3 How many genera and species of Rosaceae are known? 11409284

Q.4 Give vegetative characters of Rose family. 11409285

Q.5 What is the inflorescence of Rosaceae? 11409286

Q.6 What type of flowers is found in Rosaceae? 11409287

Q.7 What type of calyx and corolla are found in Rose family? 11409288

Q.8 What do you know about the androecium and gynoecium? 11409289

Q.9 What type of Placentation is exhibited by Family Rosaceae? 11409290

Q.10 What are Ornamental plants? Give some examples from Rosaceae. 11409291

Q.11 What is the use of Crataegus and Pyrus pastia? 11409292

Q.12 Give some uses of rose. 11409293

FAMILY SOLANACEAE

Q.1 How many genera and species of Solanaceae are there? 11409294

Q.2 What familiar plants of Family Solanaceae? 11409295

Q.3 Give vegetative characters of Potato family. 11409296

Q.4 What is the inflorescence of Solanaceae? 11409297

Q.5 What type of Flower is found in Potato family? 11409298

Q.6 What type of Calyx and corolla are found in family Solanaceae? 11409299

Q.7 What type of androecium is present in Solanaceae? 11409300

Q.8 What type of gynoecium is found in Potato family? 11409301

Q.9 What is Placentation and fruit of Solanaceae? 11409302

Q.10 What is the economic Importance of potato and tomato? 11409303

Q.11 What is the economic importance of Brinjal, Capsicum and Physalis? 11409304

Q.12 What is the economic importance of Nicotiana tabacum, Atropa belladonna and Datura? 11409305

Q.13 What are Ornamental plants of family Solanaceae? 11409306

FAMILY FABACEAE

Q.1 How many genera and species are found in Fabaceae, (Papilionaceae) or Pea Family? 11409307

Q.2 What are familiar plants of Pea family? 11409308

Q.3 What are vegetative characters of Fabaceae? 11409309

Q.4 What is the inflorescence and type of flower in Fabaceae? 11409310

Q.5 What type of calyx and corolla are found in Pea family? 11409311

Q.6 What type of androecium is found in Fabaceae? 11409312

Q.7 What type of gynoecium is found in Papilionaceae? 11409313

Q.8 What type of placentation and fruit are present in Pea family? 11409314

Q.9 What is economic Importance of Fabaceae as food, forage or fodder crop?

11409315

Q.10 What is economic importance of Butea and Dalbergia? 11409316

Q.11 What is importance of seeds of Arachis hypogea Peanut? 11409317

Q.12 From where indigo dye is obtained? 11409318

Q.13 Which plants of Fabaceae are important for medicines? 11409319

Q.14 The seeds of which plant are used by jewelers as weights? 11409320

Q.15 What are ornamental plants of Fabaceae? 11409321

FAMILY CAESALPINIACEAE

Q.1 How many genera and species of Caesalpiniaceae are known? 11409322

Q.2 What are familiar plants of family Caesalpiniaceae? 11409323

Q.3 Give vegetative characters of Caesalpiniaceae. 11409324

Q.4 What is inflorescence and type of flower in Caesalpiniaceae? 11409325

Q.5 What type of calyx and corolla are found in Caesalpiniaceae? 11409326

Q.6 What type of androecium and gynoecium are present in Caesalpiniaceae?

11409327

Q.7 What type of placentation and fruit is found in Caesalpiniaceae? 11409328

Q.8 What is medicinal importance of family Caesalpiniaceae? 11409329

Q.9 What are ornamental plants of Caesalpiniaceae? 11409330

Q.10 What is economic importance of Bauhinia and Tamarindus? 11409331

Q.11 What yields the dye Haematoxylin? 11409332

FAMILY MIMOSACEAE

Q.1 How many genera and species of Mimosaceae (Mimosa or Acacia family) are known? 11409333

Q.2 What are familiar plants of Mimosa family? 11409334

Q.3 Give vegetative characters of Acacia family. 11409335

Q.4 What is inflorescence and type of flower in Mimosaceae? 11409336

Q.5 What type of calyx and corolla are found in Mimosaceae? 11409337

Q.6 What type of androecium and gynoecium are found in Mimosaceae family? 11409338

Q.7 What type of placentation and fruit are present in Acacia family? 11409339

Q.8 What is economic Importance of Acacia, Albizzia and Xylia? 11409340

Q.9 What is economic importance of Acacia species? 11409341

Q.10 What are ornamental plants of Mimosaceae? 11409342

Q.11 What is importance of Prosopis? 11409343

FAMILY POACEAE

Q.1 How many genera and species of Poaceae (Gramineae or Grass Family) are known? 11409344

Q.2 What are familiar plants of Poaceae? 11409345

Q.3 Give vegetative characters of Gramineae. 11409346

Q.4 What are rachilla, glumes, lemmas, palea, floret and awns? 11409347

Q.5 What type of flower is present in Poaceae? 11409348

Q.6 What type of perianth is found in grass family? 11409349

Q.7 What are lodicules? 11409350

Q.8 What type of androecium and gynoecium are present in Poaceae? 11409351

Q.9 What type of fruit is present in Gramineae? 11409352

Q.10 What is importance of grass family as food? 11409353

Q.11 What is importance of grass family as fodder crop? 11409354

Q.12 What are ornamental plants of Poaceae? 11409355

Q.13 What is importance of Saccharum officinarum, Saccharum munja and Cymbopogon citratus? 11409356

Q.14 What type of alcohol and other beverages are prepared from grass family?

11409357

Q.15 What are the uses of Bambusa?

11409358

Q.16 What are ornamental plants? Give some examples. 11409359

SELECTED FROM BOARD PAPERS

Q.1 What are amphibious plants of the world? (Board 2007, 14, 15) 11409361

Q.2 What is the importance (significance) of alternation of generation?

(Board 2007, 15) 11409362

Q.3 Give some characters for adaptation of bryophytes to land or terrestrial environment. (Board 2007, 08) 11409363

Q.4 Differentiate between homospory and heterospory. (Board 2007) 11409364

Q.5 Differentiate between microphylls and megaphylls. (Board 2007) 11409365

Q.6 What are gymnosperms? (Board 2005, 08) 11409366

Q.7 What are angiosperms? (Board 2005, 08) 11409367

Q.8 Distinguish between subclasses Monocotyledonae and Dicotyledonae or differentitate between dicots and monocots.

(Board 2007, 08) 11409368

Q.9 What familiar plants of Family Solanaceae? (Board 2006) 11409369

Q.10 Why are tracheophytes most successful land plants? (Board 2004) 11409370

Q.11 Define alternation of generations. (Board 2007, 13) 11409371

Q.12 Write four characters of bryophytes. (Board 2007) 11409372

Q.13 Differentiate between archegonia and antheridia. (Board 2007) 11409373

Q.14 Classify tracheophytes. (Board 2007) 11409374

Q.15 What are the differences between gymnosperms and angiosperms? (Board 2008) 11409375

Q.16 Give literal meanings of term gymnosperms and angiosperms. (Board 2013) 11409376

Unit 10

KINGDOM ANIMALIA

Objectives + Short Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Coelom or body cavity formed due to splitting of mesoderm is called: 11410037

(a) schizocoelous (b) enterocoelous

2. The life cycle is characterized by the presence of alternation of generations, in:

(a) echinoderms (b) molluscs 11410038

3. The animals having both male and female reproductive organs in the same individual are called: 11410039

(a) fraternal twins (b) hermaphrodites

4. Life history of_______ is characterized by metamorphosis. 11410040

(a) insects (b) crustaceans

5. A group that has a combination of both invertebrate and chordate characteristics is: 11410041

(a) echinodermata

(b) hemichordata

(d) urochordata

6. Coelom developed as an out-pouching of archenterons is called: 11410042

(a) enterocoelous

(b) schizocoelous

(d) both a & c

7. Coelom is cavity present between the body wall and the alimentary canal and is lined by: 11410043

(a) ectoderm (b) mesoderm

8. In traditional two-kingdom systems, the multicellular animals were referred to broadly as: 11410044

(a) metazoan (b) parazoan

9. Virtually all biologists agree that animals evolved from: 11410045

(a) monera (b) protoctista

10. The animals which do not have a body cavity have been grouped under: 11410046

(a) acoelomata

(b) coelomata

(d) procoelomata

11. The animals which have a false coelom, the pseudocoele, have been grouped under:

(a) acoelomata 11410047

(b) coelomata

(d) procoelomata

12. Blastocoel persists throughout the life in:

(a) porifera (b) cnidaria 11410048

13. The animals which have a true coelom have been grouped under: 11410049

(a) acoelomata

(b) coelomata

(d) procoelomata

14. In protostomes (proterostomia) cleavage or division of the zygote is: 11410050

(a) spiral (b) determinate

15. In protostomes (proterostomia) coelom or body cavity is formed by the splitting of:

(a) ectoderm (b) mesoderm 11410051

16. In protostomes (proterostomia) mesoderm is derived from cells on lip of: 11410052

(a) neuropore (b) gastropore

17. The series proterostomia includes animals belonging to phylum (nematoda): 11410053

(a) annelid a

(b) mollusca

(d) all of these

18. In deuterostomia (deuterostomes) cleavage is: 11410054

(a) radial (b) indeterminate

19. In deuterostomia (deuterostomes) during embryonic development mouth is formed at some distance anterior to the blastopore and blastopore forms the: 11410055

(a) anus (b) tail

20. In deuterostomia (deuterostomes) mesoderm is derived from wall of developing: 11410056

(a) gut (b) archenteron

21. The series deuterostomia includes animals belonging to phylum: 11410057

(a) echinodermata (b) hemichordata

22. In cnidarians, between the two layers, there is a jelly like: 11410058

(a) mesenchyma (b) mesoglea

23. Diploblastic animals are included in phylum: 11410059

(a) Annelida

(b) Coelenterata

(d) Platyhelminthes

24. Triploblastic animals are included in phyla which have been placed in grade: 11410060

(a) radiata

(b) bilateria

(d) trilateria

25. The systems such as integumentary and nervous develop from: 11410061

(a) ectoderm

(b) mesoderm

(d) none of these

26. The muscular, skeletal and reproductive systems arise from: 11410062

(a) ectoderm

(b) mesoderm

(d) none of these

27. Endoderm forms the lining of digestive tract and forms other glands of digestive system, such as: 11410063

(a) kidney

(b) stomach

(d) gonads

28. In aschelminthes, the space between the body wall and the digestive tube is called:

(a) coelom 11410064

(b) pseudocoelom

(d) procoelom

29. The cavity that develops from the blastocoel of the embryo is: 11410065

(a) pseudocoelom

(b) coelom

(d) thoracic cavity

30. The animals which possess coelom or true body cavity are called: 11410066

(a) Acoelomates

(b) Coelomates

(d) Procoelomates

31. Animals from annelids to chordates are called: 11410067

(a) acoelomates

(b) coelomates

(d) none of the above

32. Coelom is filled with fluid called:

(a) salty fluid 11410068

(b) lymphatic fluid

SPONGES

33. The poriferans are pore-bearing animals, commonly called: 11410069

(a) nematodes (b) cnidarians

34. In most sponges the body wall is formed of an outer layer, pinacoderm, and an inner layer: 11410070

(a) phagoderm

(b) blastoderm

(d) choanoderm

35. Pinacoderm is made up of: 11410071

(a) pinacocytes

(b) pinacophores

(d) amoebocytes

36. Choanoderm is made of collared flagellated cells called: 11410072

(a) pinacocytes

(b) pinacophores

(d) amoebocytes

37. In poriferans, there is a single cavity inside the body, the: 11410073

(a) blastocoel

(b) haemocoel

(d) spongocoel

38. In most sponges this spongocoel may be divided into flagellated chambers or canals, lined by flagellated: 11410074

(a) choanocytes

(b) pinacocytes

(d) phagocytes

39. The pore through which the water leaves the body of sponge is known as: 11410075

(a) ostia

(b) osculum

(d) orifice

40. About 20% of food of sponges is: 11410076

(a) Zooplankton

(b) Detrital organic particles

(d) Zooplankton and phytoplanton

41. 80% of food of sponges consists of:

(a) zooplankton 11410077

(b) detrital organic particles

(d) small fish

42. In poriferans, the food is ingested by the flagellated cells, the: 11410078

(a) choanocytes (b) pinacocytes

43. The skeleton of poriferans is in the form of variously shaped needle-like structures called: 11410079

(a) spines (b) spicules

44. The asexual reproduction in sponges is by:

(a) binary fission (Board 2014) 11410080

(b) transverse fission

(d) parthenogenesis

45. The poriferans are mostly hermaphrodite, and: 11410081

(a) protgynrous

(b) protgendrous

(d) protandrous

46. Sycon, Leucosolenia, Euplectella and Spongilla are examples of: 11410082

(a) porifera (b) sponges

47. Euplectella is commonly called: 11410083

(a) venus flower basket (b) jelly fish (c) liver fluke (d) dragon fly

48. In sponges, the pores through which water enters the body of sponges are called:

(a) osculum 11410084

(b) apertures

(d) orifices

CNIDARIA

49. The name cnidaria has been given to this group of animals due to the presence of special cells called: 11410085

(a) phagocytes (b) nematocytes

50. Cnidocytes give rise to nematocysts, the: 11410086

(a) pinching cells (b) stinging cells

51. In cnidarians (coelenterates) there is only one cavity which serves as digestive as well as body cavity and is called: 11410087

(a) gastrovascular cavity

(b) enteron

(d) both a & b

52. A hydrozoan polyp that may reach two metres in length is: 11410088

(a) Branchioceranthus

(b) Physalia

(d) Obelia

53. Cnidarians are found in two basic forms: the polyp and the: 11410089

(a) trochophore

(b) medusa

(d) nymph

54. Polyps are cylindrical animals, which in most cases are nutritive in function, hence named as: 11410090

(a) blastostyle (b) gonozoids

55. The mouth of cnidarians is surrounded by a series of: 11410091

(a) flagella (b) cirri

56. The tentacles bear stinging cell called nematocysts which are organs of: 11410092

(a) defense (b) offence

57. Many colonial coelenterates such as corals produce a hard exoskeleton formed of:

(a) calcium carbonate. 11410093

(b) silica

(d) lignin

58. Hydra, Obelia, sea-anemones and corals are sessile 11410094

(a) poriferans (b) coelenterates

59. Obelia has a kind of zooid known as blastostyle which gives rise to individual zooids called: 11410095

(a) polyp (b) nectophore

60. Among animals, the presence of alternation of generations is the characteristics of: 11410096

(a) annelids (b) echinoderms

61. The occurrence of structurally and functionally more than two different types of individuals, called the zooids within the same organism is called: 11410097

(a) polymorphism

(b) multi morphism

(d) hermaphrodite

62. Hydra, Obelia, Aurelia (jelly fish), Actinia (sea anemone) and Madrepora are examples of phylum: 11410098

(a) platyhelminthes (b) cnidaria

63. Madrepora are commonly called corals, the skeleton of which forms: 11410099

(a) large coral reefs (b) small islands

64. Coral reefs are mostly formed of: 11410100

(a) calcium carbonate (b) chitin

65. The animal that exists only in polyp form is: 11410101

(a) Obelia

(b) Aurelia

(d) Hydra

66. Polymorphism is the characteristics of members of phylum: (Board 2015) 11410102

(a) Porifera (b) Cnidaria

Platyhelminthes and aschelminthes

67. The name platyhelminthes means: 11410103

(a) round worms

(b) flatworms

(d) shipworms

68. The most common examples of parasitic platyhelminthes are: 11410104

(a) tapeworm (b) liver flukes

69. The excretory system of platyhelminthes consists of branching tubes ending in bulb-like cells, the: 11410105

(a) flame cells (b) fire cells

70. Dugesia (planaria), Fasciola (liver fluke), and Taenia (tape worn) are common examples of: 11410106

(a) round worms

(b) flatworms

(d) shipworms

71. The body of tapeworm is ribbon-like and divided into segments called: 11410107

(a) proglottids b) glottids

72. The name nematoda means: 11410108

(a) round worm (b) flatworm

73. Pseudocoelom is derived from the hollow space, blastocoel, situated in the: 11410109

(a) gastrula (b) blastula

74. Enterobius vermicularis is commonly known as: (Board 2013) 11410110

(a) ship worm b) hook worm

75. Ancyclostoma duodenale is commonly known as: (Board 2015) 11410111

(a) ship worm (b) hook worm

76. The sense organs are in the form of sensory papillae present' on the lips at the anterior end, in: 11410112

(a) aschelminthes (b) platyhelminthes

77. Ascaris lumbericoides is an intestinal parasite of: 11410113

(a) horse (b) man

ANNELIDA

78. The body of annelids is: 11410114

(a) metamerically segmented

(b) myomerically segmented

(d) eumerically segmented

79. In annelids, the mouth is overhung by a lobed structure, the: 11410115

(a) peristomium

(b) prostomium

(d) parapodium

80. Which is the first group of invertebrates that has developed a closed circulatory system? 11410116

(a) cnidarians (b) annelids

81. The chaetae are absent in: 11410117

(a) Lumbricus (b) Pheretima

82. The organs of locomotion of class polychaeta are: 11410118

(a) setae (b) pseudopodia

83. Nereis and Chaetopterus are important examples of class: 11410119

(a) polychaeta (b) oligochaeta

84. Polychaeta, oligochaeta, and hirudinea are classes of phylum: 11410120

(a) mollusca

(b) annelida

(d) hemichordata

85. Organs of locomotion in class oligochaeta are: 11410121

(a) setae (b) both a & c

86. Lumbricus terrestris, and Pheretima posthuma are examples of class: 11410122

(a) polychaeta (b) oligochaeta

87. Each segment in hirudinea has additional circular rings or markings called: 11410123

(a) bracelets (b) trinkets

88. In annelids, excretion takes place by specialized structures are called: 11410124

(a) kidneys (b) malpighian tubules

89. The body is covered by a glandular epithelial envelope called mantle in:

(a) coelenterates (b) annelids 11410125

90. Helix aspersa is commonly termed as garden: 11410126

(a) earthworm (b) grasshopper

91. A free swimming trochophore larva is produced during the life cycle of: 11410127

(a) echinoderms (b) annelids(aquatic)

92. Parapodia are the organs of locomotion of: 11410128

(a) Neries (b) Leach

ARTHROPODA

93. The most common arthropods, on the earth are: 11410129

(a) crustaceans (b) arachnids

94. Cockroaches, grasshoppers, butterflies. and mosquitoes are: 11410130

(a) crustaceans (b) arachnids

95. Jointed appendages are found in phylum:

(a) arthropoda (b) mollusca 11410131

96. The body cavity of arthropods is called:

(a) blastocoel (b) haemocoel 11410132

97. A well developed excretory system comprising malpighian tubules is present in: 11410133

(a) arthropoda (b) mollusca

98. Most arthropods possess an extensive system formed of air tubes called trachea for the exchange of: 11410134

(a) water (b) food

99. Main tracheal tubes open to the exterior through openings called: 11410135

(a) apertures (b) holes

100. Aquatic arthropods respire through:

11410136

(a) gills (b) book lungs

101. In arthropods, blood is colourless as it is without: 11410137

(a) haemoglobin (b) chlorophyll

102. The exoskeleton of arthropods is in the form of an outer covering the cuticle which is formed chiefly of 11410138

(a) silica

(b) chitin

(d) lignin

103. In crustacea on the dorsal side of the body the exoskeleton is in the form of:

(a) plastron (b) sleeve 11410139

104. Daphnia, cyclops, crabs, lobsters, prawn, wood louse etc., are examples of class:

11410140

(a) insecta (b) arachnida

105. Which is the largest group not only of arthropoda but of all the animal kingdom? 11410141

(a) insecta (b) oligochaeta

106. The body in insects has three distinct regions: head, thorax and: 11410142

(a) belly (b) abdomen

107. The thorax in insects has three segments in which are present three pairs of jointed legs and in many one or two pairs of:

(a) legs (b) antennae 11410143

108. Housefly, mosquito, butterflies, moths, wasps and beetles etc, are examples of class: 11410144

(a) insecta (b) arachnida

109. There is a pair of appendages called chelicerae with claws, two pairs of pedipalps and four pairs of legs in: 11410145

(a) insecta (b) arachnida

110. Scorpions, spiders, mites and ticks are examples of class: 11410146

(a) insecta (b) arachnida

111. Centipedes and millipedes are examples of class: 11410147

(a) insecta (b) arachnida

112. The process of shedding skeleton is cal1ed: 11410148

(a) moulting (b) ecdysis

113. Female mosquito of genus Anopheles transmits plasmodium that causes malaria fever in: 11410149

(a) man (b) sparrow

114. The tse- tse fly of African countries transmits Trypanosoma. That is cause of:

(a) sleeping sickness 11410150

(b) skin diseases

(d) both a & b

115. The common house fly carries disease causing organisms, contaminate food etc, and causes the. 11410151

(a) Cholera (b) Hepatitis

116. The useful insects are the honey bee that provides man with: 11410152

(a) honey (b) wax

117. An extensive tracheal system formed of air tubes called tracheae is found in most:

(a) molluscs (b) annelids 11410153

118. In which class of arthropods, there are no antennae and no true jaws. 11410154

(a) Crustaceans (b) Insecta

Mollusca

119. The largest invertebrate animal is:

11410155

(a) octopus (b) giant squid

120. There is a rasping tongue-like radula provided with many teeth, in the mouth cavity of many: 11410156

(a) molluscs (b) annelids

121. Gastropoda, bivalvia (pelecypoda) and cephalopoda are classes of phylum:

(a) arthropoda (b) annelida 11410157

122. Helix aspersa and Limax (slug) are examples of class: 11410158

(a) bivalvia

(b) cephalopoda

(d) gastropoda

123. Mytilus, Anodonta and Ostrea are examples of class: 11410159

(a) bivalvia. (b) cephalopoda

124. Loligo, Sepia and Octopus are examples of class: 11410160

(a) bivalvia (b) cephalopoda

125. The harmful molluscs are: 11410161

(a) slugs (b) shipworms

126. Shell of freshwater mussels is used in:

(a) mineral industry 11410162

(b) button industry

(d) cement industry

127. In molluscs, a respiratory pigment of blue colour is present, called: (Board 2014)

(a) haemoglobin 11410163

(b) haemoerythrin

(d) haemocyanin

Echinodermata

128. The free living species of echinoderms move with the help of: 11410164

(a) four feet (b) parapodia

129. Bipinnaria and brachiolaria are larvae of phylum: 11410165

(a) echinodermata (b) mollusca

130. The ability to reform lost organs is called:

(a) moulting (b) regeneration 11410166 (c) apomixis (d) epiboly

131. Asteria (star fish), sea urchin, sea cucumber, sea-dollar, brittle star etc., are examples of phylum: 11410167

(a) echinodermata (b) mollusca

132. Echinodermata show affinities with: 11410168

(a) hemichordata (b) chordata

133. In echinoderms, water enters water vascular canals through a sieve-like plate called: 11410169

(a) madreporite (b) strainer

Chordata

134. Balanoglossus and Saccoglossus are common examples of phylum: 11410170

(a) echinodermata (b) mollusca

135. Phylum Chordata derives its name from the presence of: 11410171

(a) post-anal tail

(b) notochord

(d) dorsal nervous system

136. The example of sub-phylum urochordata is: 11410172

(a) Molgula (b) Amphioxus

137. The example of sub-phylum cephalochordata is: 11410173

(a) Molgula (b) Amphioxus

138. Class cyclostomata, class chondrichthyes and class osteichthyes are included in super class: 11410174

(a) Pisces (b) Tetrapoda

139. The classes Amphibia, Reptilia, Aves and Mammalian are included in superclass:

(a) pisces (b) tetrapoda 11410175

140. Lamprey and hag fishes are examples of class: 11410176

(a) chondrichthyes (b) osteichthyes

141. Placoid scales are present on the body of:

(a) chondrichthyes 11410177

(b) osteichthyes

(d) dipnoi

142. Sharks, skates and rays are examples of class: 11410178

a) chondrichthyes (b) osteichthyes

143. Commercially shark liver oil is extracted and used in medicine as a source of:

(a) fatty acids 11410179

(b) citric acids

(d) vitamin A and B

144. The skin of osteichthyes has embedded dermal scales which may be: 11410180

(a) ganoid (b) cycloid

145. A swim bladder is present in: 11410181

(a) jawless fishes

(b) bony fishes

(d) armoured fishes

146. Osteichthyes have brain with 10 pairs of:

(a) cranial nerves 11410182

(b) cerebral nerves

(d) cranial & spinal nerves

147. Swim bladder is mainly a hydrostatic organ and can change the gravity of fish by filling itself with: 11410183

(a) gas (b) water

148. The gases that fill the swim bladder are either: 11410184

(a) hydrogen, carbon dioxide and nitrogen

(b) oxygen, carbon dioxide and nitrogen

(d) oxygen, hydrogen and nitrogen

149. The group of ancient fish which showed modification of aquatic breathing system by developing lungs are: 11410185

(a) trout (b) skates

150. The heart is 3-chambered with respect to atria and ventricle in: 11410186

(a) fishes (b) birds

151. Protective embryonic membranes i.e., amnion, and chorion are not present in:

(a) mammals (b) birds 11410187

152. The reptiles in which ventricle is completely partitioned into two are:

(a) crocodiles (b) turtles 11410188

153. Syrinx is an organ of voice in: 11410189

(a) amphibians (b) birds

154. Mammals became dominant in which period: 11410190

(a) Jurassic (b) Ordovician

155. In mammals the thoracic and abdominal cavities are separated by a muscular:

(a) partition (b) panel 11410191

156. External ear or pinna has a chain of three bones i.e., incus, malleus & stapes in:

(a) mammals (b) birds 11410192

157. Only left aortic arch is present in.

(a) mammals (b) Amphibians 11410193

158. Only right aortic arch is present in:

(a) mammals (b) birds 11410194

159. Duck-billed platypus and Echidna (spiny anteaters) belong to sub- class: 11410195

(a) eutheria (b) metatheria

160. Opossum,. Kangaroo and tasmanian wolf belong to sub-class: 11410196

(a) eutheria (b) metatheria

161. In some mammals the hair have been modified into scales e.g. 11410197

(a) penguin (b) panther

162. In some mammals the hair have been modified into spines e.g. 11410198

(a) Penguin (b) Panther

163. The animals on the border line between aquatic and true terrestrial animals are

(a) amphibians 11410199

(b) reptiles

(d) egg-laying mammals

164. Mammals have evolved from reptilian ancestor the: (Board 2013) 11410200

(a) dinosaurs (b) varanope

165. Some sharks reach 30 to______ feet in length. 11410201

(a) 40 (b) 60

166. In bony fish the gills are not exposed but are covered by a lid like structure called:

(a) mantle (b) epiglottis 11410202

167. With the exception of whale, the largest living vertebrates are: 11410203

(a) elephants (b) sharks

168. The reptiles of today have been derived from the dinosaurs of: 11410204

(a) Jurassic (b) Cretaceous

169. Dolphin is: 11410205

(a) fish (b) bird

170. Morsupium is the characteristic of: 11410206

(a) Opossum (b) Echidna

171. Varanope was a: 11410207

(a) simple reptile

(b) reptile with 50% mammalian traits

(d) mammal with 50% reptilian traits

172. Which group of pisces lack stomach? 11410208

(a) Chondrictythyes

(b) Osteichthyes

(d) None of these

Selected From board papers

i. In molluscs, a respiratory pigment of blue colour is present, called

(Board -2007) 11410209

(a) haemoglobin (b) haemoerythrin

ii. The Tse-Tse fly of African countries transmits Trypanosoma, the cause of (Board -2005) 11410210

(a) sleeping sickness (b) skin diseases

iii. Loligo, Sepia and Octopus are examples of class (Board-2006) 11410211

(a) Bivalvia (b) Cephalopoda

iv. The group of ancient fish which showed modification of aquatic breathing system by developing lungs are:
(Board -2008) 11410212

(a) Trout (b) Skates
(c) Dipnoi (d) Hagfishes

v. Syrinx is organ of voice in:
(Board -2007) 11410213

(a) amphibians (b) birds
(c) reptiles (d) mammals

vi. Flame cells are the excretory cells in:

(Board -2004) 11410214

(a) Flat worms (b) Segmented worms

vii. Round worms belong to phylum: (Board 2004, 14) 11410215

(a) Mollusca (b) Annelida
(c) Arthropoda (d) Nematoda

viii. The animal can be divided into two equal parts by an imaginary line only in one plane is: (Board -2007) 11410216

(a) radial (b) bilateral
(c) asymmetric (d) none of the above

ix. Animals that have their body cavity filled with parenchyma mesoderm are: (Board 2007) 11410217

(a) acoelomates (b) coelomates

x. Example of placental mammal is: (Board 2007, 13) 11410218

(a) platypus (b) bat
(c) kangaroo (d) opossum

xi. Earliest fossil bird is:

(Board -2007) 11410219

(a) Cotylosaur (b) Archaeopteryx

xii. The body cavity of Nematoda is: (Board -2008) 11410220

(a) Blastocoel (b) Haemocoel

xiii. The cartilaginous fishes contains scales:

(Board 2014) 11410221

(a) Placoid (b) Cycloid

xiv. The body cavity of nematode is:

(Board 2013) 11410222

(a) Blastocoel (b) pseudocoelom

xv. Metamerically segmented animals belongs to: (Board 2013) 11410223

(a) Annelida (b) Cnidaria

xvi. Blood of arthropods is:

(Board 2015) 11410224

(a) Green colour (b) Blue colour

Short Questions

Q.1 What is polymorphism? Also give examples. (Board 2015) 11410224

Q.2 What do you mean by infestation and disinfestations? 11410225

Q.3 What is mantle? 11410226

Q.4 What is mesoglea? 11410227

Q.5 Differentiate between polyps and medusae. 11410228

Q.6 What are zooids? 11410229

Q.7 What are gastrozooids, gonozooids and blastostyle? 11410230

Q.8 What is pseudocoelom? 11410231

Q.9 What are cnidocytes? 11410232

(Board 2015)

Q.10 What is importance of Madrepora? 11410233

Q.11 What are proglottids? 11410234

Q.12 What is prostomium? 11410235

Q.13 Differentiate between closed and open circulatory systems. 11410236

Q.14 The body of annelids is metamerically segmented. Explain. 11410237

Q.15 What is trochophore? 11410238

Q.16 What are organs of locomotion in Polychaeta and Oligochaeta? 11410239

Q.17 Give examples of class Polychaeta. 11410240

Q.18 Name various classes of Phylum Annelida. 11410241

Q.19 Give examples of class Oligochaeta. 11410242

Q.20 Why arthropods are believed to have common origin with annelids? 11410243

Q.21 What are jointed appendages?

11410244

Q.22 What is haemocoel? 11410245

Q.23 Give examples of crustaceans.

11410246

Q.24 What are different regions of body in insects? (Board 2014) 11410247

Q.25 What is metamorphosis? 11410248

(Board 2015)

Q.26 What is nymph? 11410249

Q.27 Give examples of class Arachnida. 11410250

Q.28 Give examples of class Myriapoda. 11410251

Q.29 What is moulting or ecdysis? How is it beneficial to arthropods? 11410252

Q.30 What is radula? 11410253

Q.31 Name classes of Phylum Mollusca. 11410254

Q.32 Give examples of class Gastropoda. 11410255

Q.33 Give examples of class Bivalvia (Pelecypoda). 11410256

Q.34 Give examples of class Cephalopoda. 11410257

Q.35 Differentiate between haemoglobin and haemocyanin. 11410258

Q.36 Differentiate between Cephalopoda and Cephalochordata. 11410259

Q.37 Name the larvae of Echinodermats and Molluscs. 11410260

Q.38 What are tube feet? 11410261

Q.39 Define regeneration. Give some examples from echinoderms which show regeneration. 11410262

Q.40 What are affinities of Echinodermata with Chordata? 11410263

Q.41 What are basic or fundamental characters of chordates? 11410264

Q.42 Differentiate between amniotes and anamniotes. 11410265

Q.43 What groups of animals possess these scales: placoid, ganoid, cycloid and ctenoid? 11410266

Q.44 What are examples of class Chondrichthyes? 11410267

Q.45 What is swim bladder? 11410268

Q.46 What is Dipnoi? 11410269

Q.47 Differentiate between Chondrichthyes and Osteichthyes. 11410270

Q.48 What is archaeopteryx? 11410271

Q.49 What is syrinx? 11410272

Q.50 What are cotylosaurs and varanope? 11410273

Q.51 What are sub-classes of mammals?

Q.52 What is Diaphragm? 11410275

Q.53 Why are eutherians called placental mammals? 11410276

Q.54 What is marsupium? 11410277

Q.55 Name the bones present in external ear or pinna of mammals. 11410278

SELECTED IN BOARDS

Q.1 What are coral reefs?

(Board 2003, 14) 11410279

Q.2 Differentiate between acoelomata, pseudoceolomata and coelomata.

(Board 2007) 11410280

Q.3 What is the main difference between diploblastic and triploblastic organisms.
(Board 2007, 13, 14) 11410281

Q.4 What is coelom? (Board 2007-2014)

11410282

Q.5 What is pseudocoelom? (Board 2007) 11410283

Q.6 Describe alternation of generation in animals. (Board 2007) 11410284

Q.7 Why arthropods are believed to have common origin with annelids?

(Board 2006) 11410285

Q.8 What are common examples of Phylum Echinodermata?

(Board 20007) 11410286

Q.9 What are basic or fundamental characters of chordates? 11410287

Q.10 Differentiate between amniotes and anamniotes. (Board 2005) 11410288

Q.11 What is the connecting link between reptiles and birds? Or what is the importance of archaeopteryx? (Board 2008, 14) 11410289

Q.12 What is placenta? (Board 2003) 11410290

Q.13 What are hermaphrodites?

(Board 2007) 11410291

Q.14 What is economic importance of molluscs? (Board 2007) 11410292

Q.15 Give four characters of phylum Nematoda. (Board 2007) 11410293

Q.16 Describe two main characters of molluscs. (Board 2007) 11410294

Q.17 Write a brief note on Metatheria or marsupials or pouched mammals. (Board 2007) 11410295

Q.18 Give characters of dipnoi as ancestor of amphibians. (Board 2007) 11410296

Q.19 Write brief note on metamorphosis in insects. (Board 2007) 11410297

Q.20 Differentiate between polychaeta and oligochaeta. (Board 2008) 11410298

Q.21 Write down the characteristics of osteichythes. (Board 2013) 11410299

Unit	BIOENERGETICS Objectives + Short Questions
11

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Process of photosynthesis is almost exactly opposite to: 11411021

(a) Combustion (b) Fermentation

(d) Aerobic respiration

2. Which equation of photosynthesis is correct one? 11411022

(a) 6CO₂+ l2H₂O + Light

C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ + 6H₂O

(b) 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + Light

C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂

(d) Both (a) and (b)

3. Oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from: 11411023

(a) Atmosphere (b) CO₂

4. What is not correct for photosynthesis?11411024

(a) It uses oxygen (b) It uses water

(d) It occurs during daytime

5. What is unrelated to light reactions? 11411025

(a) It can occur in light only

(b) NADPH₂ is produced in it

(d) It can occur in dark

6. The number of chloroplasts in a square millimeter of leaf surface is about: 11411026

(a) 0.5 million (b) 0.4 million

7. Energy transformation in living system follows the principle of: 11411027

(a) Biophysics (b) Bioenergetics

8. Which part of plant captures light energy?

11411028

(a) Chloroplast (b) Mesophyll cells

9. The presence of free oxygen made possible the evolution of: 11411029

(a) Man (b) Dark reactions

10. Which statement about photosynthesis is not correct? 11411030

(a) CO₂ and H₂O are used

(b) Takes place in light and dark

(d) Occurs in almost all the green parts of plant

11. The number of chloroplasts in each mesophyll cell ranges from:(Board 2013, 15)

(a) 10-100 (b) 10-200 11411031

12. Chloroplast encloses a dense fluid filled region called: 11411032

(a) Stroma (b) Cytosol

13. The interior of thylakoid space is also called a: 11411033

(a) Cavity (b) Lumen

14. Thylakoid sacs are stacked in columns called: 11411034

(a) Piles (b) Stroma

15. Thylakoid membranes are involved in ATP formation by: 11411035

(a) Oxidation (b) Chemiosmosis

16. The products of photosynthetic light reactions are: 11411036

(a) ATP and NADH

(b) ATP and FADPH

(d) ATP and NAD

17. Light can work in photosynthesis if only it is: 11411037

(a) Absorbed (b) Reflected

18. Spectrophotometer is used to measure: 11411038

(a) Absorption of water

(b) Absorption of different wavelengths

(d) Absorption of CO₂

19. The pigment found in the thylakoid membranes are: 11411039

(a) Xanthophyll (b) Chlorophyll

20. Which chlorophylls are found in algae and photosynthetic plants? 11411040

(a) a and b (b) c and d

21. Which wavelength is least absorbed by chlorophyll? (Board 2013) 11411041

(a) Orange and indigo

(b) Violet and yellow

(d) Blue and red

22. Which wavelength is mainly absorbed by chlorophyll? 11411042

(a) Violet blue and orange red

(b) Green and blue

(d) Red and indigo

23. Magnesium is an important nutrition in green plants as it is an essential component of: 11411043

(a) Protein (b) Chlorophyll

24. Chlorophyll contains magnesium in which part: 11411044

(a) Phytol tail (b) Pyrrole ring

25. Which statement about chlorophyll is not true? 11411045

(a) It contains terminal carbonyl group

(b) It contains phytol tail

(d) It contains magnesium

26. Most important and most abundant chlorophyll is: 11411046

(a) c (b) b

27. The colour of chlorophyll b is: 11411047

(a) Orange-red (b) Yellow-green

c) Blue-green (d) Orange-green

28. The absorbing peak of chlorophyll a is: 11411048

(a) 680 (b) 690

29. Human eye is protected by: 11411049

(a) Carotenoids (b) Chlorophyll a

30. Which of the following is accessory pigment: 11411050

(a) Chlorophyll b (b) Carotenoids

31. Visible light ranges between 11411051

(a) 280-450 nm (b) 380-750 nm

32. T.W. Engelmann worked on: 11411052

(a) Photosynthetic bacteria

(b) Ulothrix

(d) Spirogyra

33. Percentages of light absorbed by leaf surface is: 11411053

(a) 0.1 % (b) 1%

34. Which of the following shows absorption of light? 11411054

(a) Light spectrum
(b) Absorption spectrum

35. Red part of spectrum shows peak around:

(a) 670 nm (b) 580 nm 11411055

36. Sugar is formed during: 11411056

(a) Dark independent reactions

(b) Light independent reactions

(d) Light dependent reactions

37. About 90% of photosynthesis is carried out by plants living in: 11411057

(a) Oceans (b) Ponds

38. The percentage of CO₂ in air is: 11411058

(a) 30-40% (b) 0.03-0.04%

39. Carbon dioxide enters leaves through

(a) Roots (b) Cuticle 11411059

40. Entry of CO₂ into the leaves depends upon: 11411060

(a) Opening of stomata (b) Light

41. Photosynthesis is: 11411061

(a) Oxidative process

(b) Reductive process

(d) Redox process

42. Light dependent reactions use: 11411062

(a) Water (b) Light indirectly

43. Light reaction results in: 11411063

(a) O₂ (b) NADPH₂

44. Light independent reaction is also called: 11411064

(a) Energy conservation reactions

(b) Energy conversion reactions

(d) Energy requiring reactions

45. Photosynthetic pigments are organized into clusters called: 11411065

(a) Photo-systems (b) Phytols

46. The photo-systems of photosynthesis consist: 11411066

(a) Electron transport

(b) Reaction center system

47. Antenna complex has molecules of. 11411067

(a) Chlorophyll a

(b) Chlorophyll b

(d) All of these

48. The light energy absorbed by the pigment molecules of antenna complex is transferred ultimately to: 11411068

(a) Reaction center

(b) Electron transport system

(d) Plastoquinone

49. Water splitting process of photosynthesis releasing oxygen is called: 11411069

(a) Glycolysis (b) Photolysis

50. Plastocyanin is proteinaceous electron carrier which contains: (Board 2013) 11411070

(a) Iron (b) Nitrogen

51. The second major stage of photosynthesis is called: 11411071

(a) Krebs’s cycle

(b) Calvin cycle

(d) Electron transport chain

52. Which of the following is electron carrier? 11411072

(a) Plastocyanin (b) Cytochromes

53. Iron is present in: 11411073

(a) Plastoquinone (b) Plastocyanin

54. Each photon of light excites: 11411074

(a) Many electrons (b) 3 electrons

55. What is not produced during cyclic electron flow? 11411075

(a) Oxygen (b) ATP

56. An enzyme NADP reductase transfers electrons from: 11411076

(a) Fd to NADP (b) NADP to Fd

57. When a green plant performs photosynthesis at its maximum rate:

(a) The rate of water loss is low 11411077

(b) The water content of plant will be low

(d) The energy content will be unaffected

58. Which statement about ATP is not true?

11411078

(a) It is used as an energy currency by all cells.

(b) It is formed only under aerobic conditions

(d) It provides the energy for many different biochemical reactions

59. Melvin Calvin made his observations at the University of: 11411079

(a) Texas (b) Illinois

60. The dark reaction consists of: 11411080

(a) Carbon fixation (b) Reduction
(c) Regeneration (d) All of above

61. The most abundant protein on earth is: 11411081

(a) NADP reductase

(b) Rubisco

(d) NADPH Synthase

62. Calvin cycle is also known as: 11411082

(a) C₃ pathway (b) C₄ pathway

63. Name the carbohydrate which is produced directly during Calvin cycle: 11411083

(a) Glucose (b) G3P

64. During the dark reactions of photosynthesis the main process which occurs is: 11411084

(a) Release of oxygen

(b) Formation of ATP

(d) Adding of hydrogen to carbon dioxide

65. Which statement about the chemiosmotic mechanism is not true? 11411085

(a) The membrane in question is the inner mitochondrial membrane

(b) Proton pumping is associated with respiratory chain

(d) Protons return through the membrane by way of a channel protein

66. The number of carbon atoms in one molecule of RuBP is: 11411086

(a) 4 (b) 6

67. The way glucose is oxidized or metabolized depends on the availability of: 11411087

(a) Oxygen (b) Suitable temperature

68. Glucose molecules split into two molecules of: 11411088

(a) Acetic acid (b) Pyruvic acid

69. Which of the following occurs in the absence of oxygen? 11411089

(a) Alcoholic fermentation

(b) Aerobic respiration

(d) Both (a) and (c)

70. During aerobic respiration glucose is oxidized to: 11411090

(a) Water (b) Energy

71. Glycolysis literally means splitting of: 11411091

(a) Sucrose (b) Sugar

72. In yeast pyruvic acid is converted to: 11411092

(a) Acetic acid (b) Lactic acid

73. The inner folding of inner membrane in mitochondrion are called: 11411093

(a) Grana (b) Thylakoids

74. Breaking of terminal phosphate of ATP releases energy: (Board 2013) 11411094

(a) 7.1 Kcal (b) 5.3 Kcal

75. Cellular respiration consists of: 11411095

(a) Glycolysis
(b) Pyruvic acid oxidation

(d) All of above

76. Glycolysis can be divided, for convenience into two phases: 11411096

(a) Oxidative and reductive phase

(b) Preparatory and oxidative phase

(d) Two oxidative phase

77. Glycolysis: 11411097

(a) Produces no ATP

(b) Is the same as fernmentation

(d) Reduces two molecules of NAD⁺ for every glucose molecule processed

78. Before pyruvate enters the citric acid cycle, it is decarboxylated, oxidized and combined with coenzyme A, forming acetyl CoA, carbon dioxide and one molecule of: 11411098

(a) NADH (b) ADP

79. The citric acid cycle: 11411099

(a) Takes place in the mitochondrion

(b) Reduces two molecules of NAD for every glucose molecule processed

(d) Has no connection with the respiratory chain

80. Which statement about oxidative phosphorylation is not true? 11411100

(a) Its functions can be served equally well by fermentation

(b) In eukaryotes it takes place in mitochondrion

(d) It is the formation of ATP during operation of respiratory chain

81. In the first step of citric acid cycle, acetyl CoA reacts with, exaloacetate to form:

(a) NADH (b) ATP 11411101

82. Which of the following series is correct one in Krebs’s cycle? 11411102

(a) succinate ® malate ® fumarate ® oxaloacetate

(b) oxalacetate ® malate ®fumarate ® succinate

(d) malate ® oxaloacetate ® fumarate ® succinate

83. The correct sequence of cytochrome in electron transport chain is: 11411103

(a) b,c,a,a₃ (b) b,c,a₃,a

84. During oxidation of one molecule of glucose how many ATP molecules are released? 11411104

(a) 36 ATP (b) 38 ATP

85. End product of Kreb’s cycle is: 11411105

(a) Citric acid (b) Oxaloacetic acid

SELECTED from BOARD papers

1. The firststep in Kreb’s or citric acid cycle is the union of acetyl CoA with oxaloacetate to form. (Board 2007,13, 14) 11411106

(a) isocitrate (b) -ketogluterate

2. Chlorophyll absorbs mainly wavelengths of (Board 2004) 11411107

(a) Green colour (b) Yellow colour

3. In yeast, the products of anaerobic respiration are (Board 2004) 11411108

(a) Methyl alcohol (b) Ethyl alcohol

4. Enzymes involved in cellular respiration are found in (Board 2005) 11411109

(a) Cytoplasm (b) Golgi bodies

(d) endoplasmic reticulum

5. Magnesium is an important nutrient ion in green plant as it is an essential component of: (Board 2006, 07) 11411110

(a) Lipids (b) chlorophyll

6. Which one is not accessory pigment? (Board 2007) 11411111

(a) Chlorophyll a (b) Chlorophyll b

7. Glycolysis is the breakdown of glucose up to the formation of (Board 2007) 11411112

(a) pyruvic acid (b) sulphuric acid

8. The process by which pH gradient across the membrane drives the formation of ATP: (Board 2008, 14) 11411113

(a) Photosynthesis (b) Chemiosmosis

9. The dark reaction occurs in:

(Board 2014) 11411114

(a) Cytoplasm (b) Chloroplast

Short Questions

Q.1 Define photosynthesis. 11411115

(Board 2015)

Q.2 How does light affect opening of stomata? 11411116

Q.3 What causes the variations of osmotic potential in the guard cells? 11411117

Q.4 Why light and dark reactions have been given these names? 11411118

Q.5 What is Z-scheme? 11411119

Q.6 What is Calvin cycle? 11411120

Q.7 Who obtained the first action spectrum and when? 11411121

Q.8 Differentiate between cyclic and non-cyclic phosphorylation. 11411122

Q.9 What are cytochromes? 11411123

Q.10 What is spectrophotometer? 11411124

Q.11 What is the difference between an action spectrum and an absorption spectrum? 11411125

Q.12 What are accessory pigments? Also give their role in light absorption.

(Board 2010, 15) 11411126

Q.13 What are carotenoids? 11411127

Q.14 What is the main difference between photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation? 11411128

Q.15 What is the location of ETC and chemiosmosis in photosynthesis and cellular respiration? 11411129

Q.16 How did the evolution of photosynthesis affect the metabolic pathway? 11411130

Q.17 Why does absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a differ from that of chlorophyll b? 11411131

Q.18 How does absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a differ from that of chlorophyll b? 11411132

Q.19 Why are the carotenoids usually not obvious in the leaves? They can be seen in the leaves before leaf fall. Why? 11411133

Q.20 How is the formation of vitamin A linked with eating of carrot? 11411134

Q.21 What are the major sites of photosynthesis? 11411135

Q.22 What is stroma? 11411136

Q.23 What are thylakoids? 11411137

Q.24 What are grana? 11411138

Q.25 Which wave-lengths of light are absorbed / transmitted / reflected by chlorophyll? 11411139

Q.26 Why do plants appear green? 11411140

Q.27 What is Porphyrin ring? 11411141

Q.28 Why does magnesium deficiency cause yellowing in plants? 11411142

Q.29 What is phytol? 11411143

Q.30 What do you know about the solubility of chlorophyll molecule? 11411144

Q.31 What are light and photons? 11411145

Q.32 What radiations are most important to life? 11411146

Q.33 Does all the light falling on the leaves is absorbed? 11411147

Q.34 What is the percentage of photosynthesis carried out by terrestrial as well as aquatic organisms? 11411148

Q.35 What is the concentration of CO₂in air? 11411149

Q.36 How much leaf surface is covered by stomata? 11411150

Q.37 How many parts the reactions of photosynthesis consist of? 11411151

Q.38 What are photosystems? 11411152

Q.39 What antenna complex and reaction centre have? (Board 2013) 11411153

Q.40 What is photolysis? (Board 2013) 11411154

Q.41 What wave-lengths of light are absorbed by photosystem I &II? 11411155

Q.42 What are the components of electron transport chain of photosynthesis? 11411156

Q.43 What is the role of primary electron acceptor photosynthesis? 11411157

Q.44 Name the enzyme that transfers the electrons from Ferredoxin (Fd) to NADP.

11411158

Q.45 Which molecule will provide reducing power for the synthesis of sugar in the Calvin cycle? 11411159

Q.46 Why Calvin cycle is also known as C₃pathway? 11411160

Q.47 How many phases can Calvin cycle be divided into? 11411161

Q.48 RuP and RuBP stands for what?

11411162

Q.49 What is respiration? 11411163

Q.50 Define cellular respiration. 11411164

Q.51 What are the major stages of cellular respiration? 11411165

Q.52 Where cellular respiration is carried out within the cell? 11411166

Q.53 What is external respiration? 11411167

Q.54 Why mitochondria are called power houses? 11411168

Q.55 What are the major phases of glycolysis? 11411169

Q.56 How glucose is activated in glycolysis? 11411170

Q.57 Name the most common fuel used by the cell to provide energy by cellular respiration. 11411171

Q.58 What are the major ways by which cell processes pyruvic acid? 11411172

Q.59 Where cellular respiration is carried out within the cell? 11411173

Q.60 Does pyruvic acid enter into mitochondria directly? 11411174

Q.61 What is the net production of ATP during glycolysis? 11411175

Q.62 Explain the roles of the following in aerobic respiration: (a) NAD and FAD (b) oxygen. 11411176

Q.63 Sum up how much energy (as ATP) is made available to the cell from a single glucose molecule by the operation of glycolysis, the formation of acetyl CoA the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain. 11411177

Q.64 How energy stored in carbohydrates is released? 11411178

Q.65 What is the difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration? 11411179

Q.66 What is alcoholic fermentation? 11411180

Q.67 What is lactic acid fermentation? 11411181

Q.68 Where and when anaerobic respiration occurs in man and other animals? 11411182

Q.69 How much energy is released by anaerobic respiration (Or alcoholic and lactic acid fermentation)? 11411183

Q.70 Where oxygen is involved in aerobic respiration? 11411184

Q.71 What is ATP? 11411185

Q.72 What is the composition of ATP? 11411186

Q.73 What is biological oxidation? 11411187

Q.74 What is respiratory chain? 11411188

Q.75 Which oxidation reduction substances, take part in respiratory chain. 11411189

Q.76 Define oxidative phosphorylation. 11411190

SELECTED FROM BOARD PAPERS

Q.1 What is compensation point? (Board 2014) 11411191

Q.2 Define photosynthesis. (Board 2007) 11411192

Q.3 What is the difference between an action spectrum and an absorption spectrum? (Board 2006, 07, 13) 11411193

Q.4 What are bacteriochlorophylls? (Board 2007) 11411194

Q.5 What are bioenergetics? (Board 2003, 14) 11411195

Q.6 What is photolysis? (Board 2005)11411196

Q.7 What is the difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

(Board 2005, 08)11411197

Q.8 Define Chemiosmosis. (Board 2003) 11411198

Q.9 What are the products of light reaction? (Board 2007)11411199

Ans. NADPH₂ and ATP

Q.10 Differentiate between lactic acid and alocoholic fermentation. (Board 2007, 2013)

11411200

Unit 12

Nutrition

Objectives + Short Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

1. A plant requires nitrogen and sulfur for its:

(a) cell wall (b) enzymes 11412018
(c) starch deposits (d) DNA replication

2. A plant requires potassium for: 11412019

(a) Synthesizing protein

(b) synthesizing chlorophyll

3. Carnivorous plants live in soils that are deficient in: 11412020

(a) water (b) oxygen
(c) nitrogen (d) iron

4. Most vitamins function as: 11412021

(a) Catalyst (b) Inhibitors
(c) High energy compounds

(d) Carriers

5. Digestion in hydra and planarian takes place within its: 11412022

(a) Alimentary Canal

(b) Gastro-vascular cavity

6. Mucus in saliva is made of: 11412023

(a) Glycolipid (b) Glycoprotein

7. The structure in mouth that prevents food from entering nasal cavities is the: 11412024

(a) tongue (b) soft palate
(c) epiglottis (d) pharynx

8. A mammalian herbivore has: 11412025

(a) More teeth than a carnivore
(b) More pointed teeth than a carnivore

9. Many humans become ill from consuming milk and milk products because they lack:

(a) Hydrochloric acid 11412026
(b) Bacteria in their intestines

(d) Rennin

10. Which of the following animals has no need for a gall bladder? 11412027

(a) Cat (b) Man
(c) Lion (d) Goat

Nutrition in Plants

1. Organisms can be divided into two categories on the basis of their methods of nutrition: 11412028

(a) Saprophytes and parasites
(b) Autotrophs and chemosynthetic

2. The organism which can exist exclusively in an inorganic environment is called: 11412029

(a) Parasite (b) Autotroph
(c) Saprophyte (d) Heterotroph

3. For the supply of carbon, oxygen and hydrogen all autotrophic organisms need:

(a) CO₂ and H₂O 11412030
(b) Carbohydrates and proteins

4. The food or any substance that supplies the body with elements, necessary for metabolism is called: 11412031

(a) Nutrient (b) Chemical
(c) Nutrition (d) Mineral

5. Which of the following nutrient is essential for metabolic process? 11412032

(a) Water (b) Minerals

6. Nitrogen, for example, is present in: 11412033

(a) Lipids (b) Carbohydrates

7. Chlorosis means: 11412034

(a) Lack of phosphorus

(b) Lack of chlorides

(d) Lack of leaves

8. Deficiency of magnesium results in: 11412035

(a) Chlorosis (b) Stunted growth
(c) Leaf roll (d) Leaf drop

9. Iron is present in: 11412036

(a) Chlorophyll (b) Proteins
(c) ATP (d) Cytochrome

10. Which of the following is present in chlorophyll 11412037

(a) Magnesium (b) Nitrogen
(c) Iron (d) both a and b

11. Deficiency of nitrogen in soil results in stunted growth and strong: 11412038

(a) Wilting (b) Stem
(c) Chlorosis (d) Leaves

12. The best mode of nutrition is: 11412039

(a) Saprotrophic (b) Parasitic
(c) Symbiotic (d) Photosynthetic

13. Feeding on dead and decaying matter is called: 11412040

(a) Autotrophic nutrition
(b) Phototrophic nutrition

14. Dodder is an example of: 11412041

(a) Parasite (b) Saprophyte
(c) Detritivore (d) Autotroph

15. Lichen is a symbiotic relationship between an alga and: 11412042

(a) Gymnosperm ((b) Pteridophyte

16. Which statement is not true for mycorrhiza? 11412043

(a) It is beneficial for both partners
(b) It is parasitic

17. Root nodules are present in: 11412044

(a) All photosynthetic plants
(b) Non-leguminous plants

(d) Leguminous plants

18. Mycorrhizal fungus provides plants minerals such as: 11412045

(a) Calcium (b) Magnesium
(c) Phosphorus (d) Potassium

19. All of the insectivorous plants are: 11412046

(a) Heterotrophs (b) Autotrophs
(c) Saprotrophs (d) Entomotrophs

20. One of the following is not insectivorous plant: 11412047

(a) Venus-fly trap (b) Cuscuta
(c) Sundew (d) Pitcher plant

21. The scientific name of Venus-fly trap is:

(a) Saracenia pupurea 11412048
(b) Dionaea muscipula

(d) Puccinia graminis

Methods of animal Nutrition

1. Organic debris from decomposing plants and animals is: 11412049

(a) Herb (b) Detritus
(c) Litter (d) Peat

2. The example of detritivore is: 11412050

(a) Earthworm (b) Silkworm
(c) Tape worm (d) Round worm

3. Animals that feed on plants are called:11412051

(a) Herbivores (b) Carnivores
(c) Omnivores (d) Detritivores

4. Which of the following are not typical herbivores? 11412052

(a) Reptiles (b) Amphibians
(c) Mammals (d) Birds

5. Two important groups of herbivorous mammals are: 11412053

(a) Rodents and cetaceans
(b) Carnivores and ungulates

6. In herbivorous mammals what is missing?

(a) Premolar (b) Incisors 11412054
(c) Molar (d) Canines

7. Carnivores are those animals which feed on: 11412055

(a) Plants (b) fungi
(c) Insects (d) other animals

8. The animal which captures and readily kills live animal for its food is called: 11412056

(a) A prey (b) An attacker
(c) A predator (d) A carnivore

9. Which of the following in not an omnivore? 11412057

(a) Dog (b) Pig
(c) Red fox (d) Man

10. A common mussel possesses two large gills covered with: 11412058

(a) Operculum (b) Flagella
(c) Cilia (d) Carapace

11. Which of the following is a filter feeder?

11412059

(a) Aphid (b) Common mussels
(c) Female mosquito (d) Hydra

12. Female mosquito exhibits: 11412060

(a) Macrophagous feeding
(b) Symbiosis

(d) Fluid feeding

13. Which of the following is not a method of macrophagous feeding: 11412061

(a) Filtering (b) Scraping

14. Hydra has: 11412062

(a) Scraping feeding

(b) Tentacular feeding

(d) Fluid feeding

15. Garden snail feeds by using rasping organ: 11412063

(a) The tongue (b) The neurula
(c) The radula (d) The pharynx

16. Seizing and swallowing type of macrophagous feeding is found in: 11412064

(a) Dragon fly (b) Spotted eel fish
(c) Spotted dogfish (d) The fire fly

17. Which of the following is an endoparasite:

(a) Tape worm (b) Mites 11412065
(c) Ticks (d) Leech

18. Holozoic nutrition includes: 11412066

(a) Ingestion and digestion
(b) Absorption

19. Numerous stinging cells present in the tentacles of hydra are called: 11412067

(a) Macrocysts (b) Cysts
(c) Nematocysts (d) Phagocytes

20. Which is not true about Hydra? 11412068

(a) It is diploblastic coelenterate animal.

(b) Animal has only one opening

(d) It has tentacular feeding

21. Digestion in Planaria is: 11412069

(a) Completely intracellular
(b) Completely extracellular

22. Which of the following is not a part of fore gut in cockroach? 11412070

(a) Crop (b) Gizzard

23. Cockroach feeds on: 11412071

(a) Insects (b) Plants

Digestion in man

1. The food is prevented to enter the wind pipe through the courtesy of: 11412072

(a) Pharynx (b) Epiglottis
(c) Larynx (d) Glottis

2. The pH of fresh saliva is: 11412073

(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 9

3. The functions of oral cavity involve: 11412074

(a) Selection of food
(b) Grinding or mastication

4. Which of the following is not salivary gland? 11412075

(a) Sublingual glands

(b) Gastric glands

(d) Parotid glands

5. Which of the following glands are present in front of the ears? 11412076

(a) Sublingual glands

(b) Parietal glands

(d) Submaxillary glands

6. Which of the following is an enzyme of saliva: 11412077

(a) Ptyalin ((b) Enterokinase
(c) Pepsin (d) Lipase

7. The enzyme in saliva is made of: 11412078

(a) Glycolipids

(b) Saturated fatty acids

(d) Phospholipids

8. Which of the following gland is not associated with the human digestive system? 11412079

(a) Spleen (b) Liver
(c) Salivary gland (d) Pancreas

9. Cardiac sphincter is present at the junction of: 11412080

(a) Esophagus and duodenum
(b) Jejunum and ileum

10. Heart burn is also called: 11412081

(a) Pyrolysis (b) Pyrosis

11. Heart burn is due to black flush of acidic chyme into: 11412082

(a) Heart (b) Stomach
(c) Oral cavity (d) Esophagus

12. Gastrin is a kind of: 11412083

(a) Mineral (b) Hormone
(c) Vitamin (d) Secretion

13. HCI adjusts the pH of stomach content to a range of: 11412084

(a) 1-3 (b) 3-4
(c) 2-3 (d) 2-5

14. Pepsin hydrolyzes protein to yield: 11412085

(a) Peptones (b) polypeptide
(c) Amino acids (d) both a and b

15. Gastric glands are composed of: 11412086

(a) Oxyntic cells (b) Mucous cells
(c) Zymogen cells (d) All of above

16. Hepatic and pancreatic secretions are stimulated by a hormone called: 11412087

(a) Secretin (b) Gastrin
(c) Pepsin (c) trypsin

17. Stomach empties into duodenum through:

(a) Pyloric sphincter 11412088

(b) Ileocolic sphincter

(d) cardiac sphincter

18. Which is not an enzyme of pancreatic juice? 11412089

(a) Trypsin (b) Pepsin
(c) Lipase (d) Amylase

19. Secretin hormone inhibits: 11412090

(a) Gastric secretion
(b) Pancreatic secretion

20. Bile pigments in liver are formed from the breakdown of: 11412091

(a) Lymphocytes (b) Neutrophils
(c) Haemoglobin (d) myoglobin

21. Maltase enzyme converts maltose into: 11412092

(a) fructose (b) Glucose
(c) Galactose (d) sucrose

22. The villi and microvilli in small intestine increase: 11412093

(a) Assimilation (b) Mixing of food
(c) Digestion (d) Absorption

23. Each villus is supplied richly with blood capillaries and a vessel called lacteal of:

(a) Lymphatic system 11412094
(b) Digestive system

(d) Nervous system

24. Caecum is a blind sac between: 11412095

(a) Jejunum and ileum
(b) Jejunum and colon

(d) Ileum and colon.

25. The acidity of chyme stimulates: 11412096

(a) Pancreatic cells (b) Liver cells
(c) Duodenal cells (d) All of above

26. The length of jejunum is about: 11412097

(a) 2.4 cm (b) 2.4 m
(c) 4.2 m (d) 4.2 cm

27. Which of the following is opposite to constipation? 11412098

(a) Appendicitis (b) Diarrhoea

28. When rectum is filled with feces it gives rise to: 11412099

(a) Autonomic reflex (b) Reflex arc

29. The function of goblet cells is to secrete: 11412100

(a) Saliva (b) Pepsinogen
(c) Mucus (d) Gastrin

30. Pepsin is secreted by: 11412101

(a) Oxyntic cells (b) Mucous cells
(c) Zymogen cells (d) All of above

31. HCl is secreted by: 11412102

(a) Oxyntic cells (b) Mucous cells
(c) Zymogen cells (d) Cheif cells

32. Parietal cells are also called: 11412103

(a) Oxyntic cells (b) Mucous cells
(c) Zymogen cells (d) Cheif cells

Diseases related to nutrition

1. Incomplete or imperfect digestion is called: 11412104

(a) Dyspepsia (b) Anorexia nervosa

2. Botulism is caused by: 11412105

(a) Pseudomonas (b) Clostridium

3. Salmonella and Campylobacter are present in the intestine of: 11412106

(a) Cattle (b) Duck

4. In abdomen fat is stored in: 11412107

(a) Adipose tissue (b) Endodermal tissue

5. An obese person is more likely to suffer from: 11412108

(a) High blood pressure (b) Heart disease

6. The loss of appetite due to the fear of becoming obese is called: 11412109

(a) Anorexia nervosa (b) Obesity

7. Serum electrolyte may be caused in: 11412110

(a) Anorexia nervosa (b) Obesity

8. Ulcer results in sore or hole in the wall of:

(a) Stomach (b) Duodenum 11412111

9. Insufficient quality or quantity of bile secretions is responsible for causing: 11412112

(a) Dyspepsia (b) Anorexia

10. Food poisoning is commonly caused by:

(a) Salmonella bacterium 11412113

(b) Campylobacter bacterium

(d) Lactobacillus and Micrococcus

SELECTED FROM BOARD PAPERS

1. Parotid glands are situated in front of the

(Board 2005) 11412114

(a) jaws (b) ears
(c) tongue (d) eyes

2. Parietal or oxyntic cells secrete: (Board 2007)

11412115

(a) nitric acid (b) sulphuric acid

3. If the absorption of water and salt does not take place due to infection, drug action or emotional disturbance, a condition occurs, known as: (Board 2007, 14) 11412116

(a) cholera (b) dehydration

4. Pepsin is secreted by: (Board 2004) 11412117

(a) Mucous cells (b) Zymogen cells

5. Amoeba moves and obtains food by means of: (Board 2006, 2007) 11412118

(a) Tentacles (b) Pseudopodia

6. Liver secretes bile into (Board 2006) 11412119

(a) Stomach (b) Duodenum

7. The taking in of complex food is known as (Board 2007) 11412120

(a) Ingestion (b) digestion

8. The structure in the mouth that prevents food from entering the nasal cavities is the (Board 2007) 11412121

(a) hard palate (b) soft palate

9. Ammonia is a waste product of amino acid metabolism is converted into urea in (Board 2008) 11412122

(a) kidney (b) pancreas (c) Liver (d) Lungs

10. The human stomach is situated below the: (Board 2013) 11412123

(a) Diaphragm (b) Liver

11. Certain types of whales are also: (Board 2015) 11412124

(a) Detritivores (b) Fluid feeders

Short Questions

Q.1 Name the predominant elements needed by the autotrophic organisms. 11412125

Q.2 What elements, other than the predominant ones are needed by the plants and for what purpose? 11412126

Q.3 How do the farmers replenish the deficiency of nutrient elements in the soil?

11412127

Q.4 What is chlorosis in plants and how is it caused? (Board 2015) 11412128

Q.5 How does the deficiency of potassium affect the green plant? 11412129

Q.6 Distinguish between saprophytic and parasitic modes of nutrition. 11412130

Q.7 Quote one example each, of a parasitic fungus and a parasitic angiosperm. 11412131

Q.8 What is symbiotic nutrition? Quote examples. 11412132

Q.9 What does nutrient mean for an organism? 11412133

Q.10 Differentiate between a lichen and mycorrhiza. 11412134

Q.11 What are insectivorous plants? Give examples. (Board 2015) 11412135

Q.12 Define detritus. 11412136

Q.13 What are herbivores? Why do the herbivorous mammals lack canine teeth?

11412137

Q.14 What are the carnivores? Quote examples. 11412138

Q.15 Explain a predator. 11412139

Q.16 Describe omnivores. Give examples. (Board 2013) 11412140

Q.17 What are the various types of teeth found in mammals? 11412141

Q.18 Which animals are called filter feeders? Give examples. (Board 2015) 11412142

Q.19 Define macrophagous feeders. Enlist common methods of macrophagous feeding.

11412143

Q.20 Distinguish obligate parasite from facultative parasite. 11412144

Q.21 Give few examples of ectoparasites of birds and mammals. 11412145

Q.22 Write down a few endoparasites found in the intestine of vertebrates. 11412146

Q.23 What is the characteristic process involved in holozoic nutrition? 11412147

Q.24 Differentiate between intracellular digestion and extra cellular digestion. 11412148

Q.25 How does Amoeba engulf solid food particles? 11412149

Q.26 Name the organelles of Amoeba, which secrete enzymes into the food vacuoles. 11412150

Q.27 What is the nature of food, acidic or alkaline in the food vacuole of Amoeba?

11412151

Q.28 Which type of digestion is found in Hydra and Planaria? 11412152

Q.29 What is the most appropriate name for the digestive cavity of Hydra? 11412153

Q.30 What is the diet of Hydra? 11412154

Q.31 Name the structures of Hydra by which it paralyse its prey. 11412155

Q.32 How does Hydra engulf its paralyzed prey? 11412156

Q.33 Differentiate between sac-like and tube-like (tubular) digestive systems. 11412157

(Board 2015)

Q.34 How does the Planaria ingest food? 11412158

Q.35 How does the digestive cavity of Planarian look like? 11412159

Q.36 Name the opening through which undigested food is ejected in Hydra and the Planaria. 11412160

Q.37 Name two animals, which possess a sac-like digestive system. 11412161

Q.38 Define digestion. 11412162

Q.39 Which parts are included in the foregut of cockroach? 11412163

Q.40 What are hepatic caeca in cockroach? 11412164

Q.41 What are the functions of human oral cavity? 11412165

Q.42 Name the enzyme found in the human saliva. 11412166

Q.43 Why is the food chewed in the oral cavity of man? 11412167

Q.44 Give the names of the pairs of salivary glands of man. Where are they located? 11412168

Q.45 Name the ingredients of human saliva. 11412169

Q.46 What are the functions of the water and mucous in the human saliva? 11412170

Q.47 Write down the pH of fresh and stale human saliva. 11412171

Q.48 Which food materials are digested by the amylase (ptyalin) of the saliva into what?

11412172

Q.49 What does bolus of food mean? 11412173

Q.50 Explain epiglottis. 11412174

Q.51 What is hunger pang? How does hunger increase? (Board 2013) 11412175

Q.52 What is peristalsis? What is its significance? 11412176

Q.53 Why does vomiting occur sometimes? 11412177

Q.54 What are the cardiac and pyloric sphincters in man? 11412178

Q.55 Explain heart burn or pyrosis. 11412179

Q.56 What is the innermost layer of the human stomach and other parts of the alimentary canal known as? 11412180

Q.57 Write down the names of the cells of human gastric glands and their functions.

11412181

Q.58 Why is hydrochloric acid present in the gastric juice? 11412182

Q.59 What is the significance of mucous in the gastric juice? 11412183

Q.60 Which term is used for the food when it is changed into a nearly homogeneous semi-solid mass in the stomach? 11412184

Q.61 Which hormones are secreted by which parts of the human gut? What are their functions? (Board 2015) 11412185

Q.62 Name the parts of the small intestine of man. 11412186

Q.63 Name the enzymes of the pancreatic juice. 11412187

Q.64 What are the components of bile? 11412188

Q.65 Which enzyme is secreted by the liver of man? 11412189

Q.66 What is emulsification of fats? Which secretion emulsifies fats? 11412190

Q.67 In which inactive form is trypsin secreted? How is it activated? 11412191

Q.68 How is jaundice caused? 11412192

Q.69 How is gall stones formed in the gall bladder? 11412193

Q.70 What are the functions of the enzymes amino-peptidase and erypsin of the intestinal juice? 11412194

Q.71 Name the enzymes of intestinal juice of man, which convert complex sugars into the simplar ones. 11412195

Q.72 How has the food absorptive surface of human intestine been increased by nature? 11412196

Q.73 Why do many people develop intestinal gas and diarrhoea by consuming milk and milk products? 11412197

Q.74 What is the name of the sphincter guarding the opening between the ileum and the colon? 11412198

Q.75 Name the parts of the large intestine of man. 11412199

Q.76 What do the goblet cells of the large intestine of man secrete? 11412200

Q.77 Is appendix in man a useful organ or a harmful one and how? 11412201

Q.78 How is diarrhoea caused in man? (Board 2014) 11412202

Q.79 How is constipation caused in man? (Board 2014) 11412203

Q.80 What is the role of the bacteria found in our large intestine? 11412204

Q.81 What are the components of human faeces? 11412205

Q.82 What is the number and nature of sphincters around the anus of man? 11412206

Q.83 Define dyspepsia. What are its symptoms? (Board 2013) 11412207

Q.84 How may dyspepsia occur? 11412208

Q.85 Name the bacteria, which commonly cause food poisoning. 11412209

Q.86 What are the symptoms of food poisoning? 11412210

Q.87 What is botulism? What is its cause? 11412211

Q.88 What are the early and late symptoms of botulism? 11412212

Q.89 Define obesity. 11412213

Q.90 Where is fat normally stored in the human body? 11412214

Q.91 Enlist the human diseases associated with obesity. 11412215

Q.92 Explain anorexia nervosa. 11412216

Q.93 What are piles or haemorrhoids? 11412217

Q.94 What is ulcer? 11412218

SELECTED FROM BOARD PAPERS

Q.1 Define nutrition. (Board 2007) 11412219

Q.2 Distinguish between saprophytic and parasitic modes of life. (Board 2007) 11412220

Q.3 What is lichen? 11412221

Q.4 What are carnivores? 11412222

Q.5 What are omnivores? 11412223

Q.6 Differentiate between ingestion and egestion. (Board 2005) 11412224

Q.7 Define digestion. (Board 2005) 11412225

Q.8 Differentiate between absorption and assimilation. (Board 2006) 11412226

Q.9 What is peristalsis? (Board 2004) 11412227

Q.10 What is chyme? (Board 2007) 11412228

Q.11 What is the difference between

appendix and appendicitis? 11412229

Q.12 What is the commonest cause of food poisoning? (Board 2007) 11412230

Q.13 What is botulism? 11412231

Q.14 What is the role of gastrin? 11412232

Q.15 Name the parts of three main divisions of the digestive system of cockroach. (Board 2008) 11412233

Q.16 How food is swallowed by you? (Board 2008) 11412234

Q.17 Differentiate between scretin and gastrin. (Board 2013) 11412235

Q.18 What are nematocysts?

(Board 2013) 11412236

Unit 13

Gaseous Exchange

Objectives + Short Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Air spaces between mesophyll cells of a leaf comprise ________of total volume. 11413021

(a) 20 % ((b) 30 %

2. The respiratory system is most efficient in. 11413022

(a) Man (b) Bird

3. Respiratory pigment present in muscles is called. 11413023

(a) Myoglobin (b) Hemoglobin

4. Blood contains ___________ oxygen when hemoglobin is 98 % saturated per 100ml of blood. 11413024

(a) 19.6 ml (b) 18.6 ml

5. How much air lungs can hold when they are fully inflated: (Board 2015) 11413025

(a) 5 Litres (b) 4 Litres

6. Water is denser than air: 11413026

(a) 80 Times (b) 800 Times

7. In peroxysomes the glycolate is converted into: 11413027

(a) Serine (b) Ethnolamine

8. Xylem and phloem are not involved:

(a) In transport of material 11413028

b) In transport of Liquids

d) In transport of Water

9. The main Tracheal trunk in cockroach communicates with exterior by: 11413029

(a) 4 Pairs (b) 8 Pairs

10. The heart of fish is single circuit and the blood flows in: 11413030

(a) One direction

(b) Two Directions

d) Reverse direction

11. Walls of the chest cavity are composed of:

(a) Ribs 11413031

(b) Intercoastal muscles

d) Ribs ,intercoastal muscles and diaphragm

12. Which factor is the most effective in accelerating the rate of breathing in a mammal? 11413032

(a) A lack of O₂ in blood

(b) A lack of O₂ in tissue

(d) An excess of CO₂ in Lungs

13. In which order food reserves more likely to be used for releasing energy in a starving mammal: 11413033

(a) Carbohydrate, fat, protein

(b) Protein, fat, carbohydrate

(d) Fat, Protein, Carbohydrate

14. Exchange of gases in organisms is carried out by: 11413034

(a) Diffusion

(b) Osmosis

(d) imbibition

15. Oxygen content of fresh air is about. 11413035

(a) (b)

16. The main sites of exchange of gases in the plants are: 11413036

(a) Guard cells (b) Stomata

17. Respiratory activity which occurs in plants during day time is called: 11413037

(a) Respiration

(b) Diurnal respiration

(d) Photorespiration

18. The protein which is carboxylase as well as oxygenase: 11413038

(a) Ribulase (b) Ribulose

19. In earthworm oxygen dissolved on the wet surface passes through the and epidermal cells into the blood, 11413039

(a) Cuticle (b) Cutin

20. Blood is not involved in transport of gases in: 11413040

(a) Frog (b) Cockroach

21. Expiration occurs exactly in reverse order in sequence of: 11413041

(a) Inspiration (b) Inhalation

22. The air sacs become inflated by pressure when the ribs are rotated forward and upward, 11413042

(a) Aortic (b) Ventricular

23. When the smaller bronchi attain a diameter of mm or less then they are called bronchioles: 11413043

(a) Three (b) One

24. During rest breathing occurs rhythmically at the frequency of 15 to ___ times per minute in human. 11413044

(a) 20 (b) 30

25. About 70% carbon dioxide is carried as:

(a) CO₂ 11413045
b) Carboxyhaemoglobin

d) Carbonate ion

26. The iron containing protein pigment present in muscle fibers is: 11413046

(a) Hemoglobin (b) Myoglobin

27. The number of stomata per square centimeter of leaf surface in tobacco plant is: 11413047

(a) 10000 (b) 11000

28. Respiration occurs at two levels: 11413048

(a) Organismic & cellular

(b) Organismic & organic

(d) Cellular & atomic

29. The process directly involved in the production of the energy is: 11413049

(a) Organismic respiration

(b) Cellular respiration

(d) Expiration

30. A litre of water cannot contain oxygen:

(a) 20 ml (b) 30 ml 11413050

31. Water is 50 times more viscous than:

(a) Oil (b) Honey 11413051

32. The total volume of the leaf comprised air spaces is: 11413052

(a) 40% (b) 50%

33. The protein comprising about 20% of all rubisco in every plant leaf is: 11413053

(a) Ribose (b) Ribulose

34. During photorespiration, the glycine after its formation diffuses into: 11413054

(a) Ribosomes (b) Peroxisomes

35. In most plants photorespiration reduces the amount of carbon fixed into carbohydrates by: 11413055

(a) 5% (b) 10%

36. In Hydra respiration Occurs through the entire surface general in contact with water and cells lining the: 11413056

(a) Digestive cavity

(b) Coelenteron

(d) Haemocoel

37. The heart of the fish is: 11413057

(a) Single circuit

(b) Double circuit

(d) Multicircuit

38. Gaseous exchange through the lungs is called: 11413058

(a) Buccal respiration

(b) Pulmonary respiration

(d) Cloacal respiration

39. In most birds the number of air sacs is:

(a) Seven (b) Eight 11413059

40. The larynx or voice box is a complex:

(a) Gelatinous structure 11413060

(b) Bony structure

(d) Cartilaginous structure

41. Lungs are covered with double layered thin membranous sacs called: 11413061

(a) Pleura (b) Pericardium

42. When oxygen tension is 100 mm mercury then hemoglobin saturation is: 11413062

(a) 98% (b) 88% (Board 2014)

43. About 20% carbon dioxide is carried as:

(a) Bicarbonate ions 11413063

(b) Carboxy hemoglobin

(d) Carbon-dioxide

44. 90% of lung cancer is caused by: 11413064

(a) Gas (b) Burning

45. Hemoglobin in man increases the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood to about:

(a) 45 times (b) 55 times 11413065

46. The heart beat slows down to one tenth of the normal rate in: 11413066

(a) Running mammal

(b) Carnivorous mammal

(d) Flying mammal

47. Organismic respiration is also known as:

(a) Breathing (b) Ventilation 11413067

48. Air is the better respiratory medium than:

(a) Water (b) Alcohol 11413068

49. Diffusion is 8000 times quicker in air than in water for: 11413069

(a) Argon (b) Oxygen

50. For gaseous exchange, the cork tissue has special pores called: 11413070

(a) Hydathodes (b) Lenticels

51. The process in which carbon dioxide is released and oxygen is absorbed is: 11413071

(a) Reverse respiration

(b) Cellular respiration

(d) Ventilation

52. When RuBP reacts with oxygen, and produce a two carbon compound: 11413072

(a) Glucose (b) Glycine

53. The path way in which RuBP is converted into serine is: 11413073

(a) Reverse respiration

(b) Cellular respiration

(d) Ventilation

54. In the blood, oxygen combines with hemoglobin, to form: 11413074

(a) Oxy-haemoglobin

(b) Haemo-oxyglobin

(d) Amino-haemoglobin

55. Gills are most effective and highly modified for gaseous exchange in: 11413075

(a) Terrestrial animals

(b) Aquatic animals

(d) Boreal animals

56. The gaseous exchange through the skin in frog is called: 11413076

(a) Buccal respiration

(b) Pulmonary respiration

(d) Ventilation

57. In the birds lungs have tiny thin walled ducts called: (Board 2015) 11413077

(a) Parabronchi (b) Paratrachea

58. Human nasal cavity is subdivided into 11413078

(a) Two passages (b) Three passages

59. The floor of the chest is called: 11413079

(a) Diagram (b) Diastole

60. Partial Pressure of the Oxygen is abbreviated as: 11413080

(a) OP₂ (b) PP₂

61. Malignant tumor of potentially unlimited growth is: 11413081

(a) Cancer (b) Carcinoma

62. The irritant substances of smoke generally cause: 11413082

(a) Smoker’s cough

(b) Smoker’s fever

(d) Smoker’s itch

63. The affinity of myoglobin to combine with oxygen is much higher as compared to: 11413083

(a) Myosin (b) Hemoglobin

64. Cellular respiration is the process by which cell utilizes oxygen, produces carbon dioxide, extracts and conserves energy from food in the form of. 11413084

(a) AMP (b) ADP

65. The first step of photorespiration during which RuBP reacts with oxygen is carried out by: 11413085

(a) Ribose (b) Ribulose

66. The glycolate produced in photorespiration diffuses into the membrane bounded organelles known as: 11413086

(a) Lysosomes (b) Dictyosomes

67. During photorespiration carbon dioxide is released fixation into: 11413087

(a) Carbohydrates (b) Proteins

68. No specialized organs for respiration are present in: 11413088

(a) Cockroach (b) Hydra

69. In earthworm, the exchange of gases occurs mainly through: (Board 2013) 11413089

(a) Lungs (b) Gills

70. Specialized organ for respiration are found in: 11413090

(a) Amoeba (b) Earthworm

71. The respiratory system of the cockroach consists of branching system of air tubules called: 11413091

(a) Tracheae (b) Windpipe

72. In cockroach, the main tracheal trunk communicates with exterior by paired apertures called: 11413092

(a) Caeca (b) Spiracles

73. The number of pairs of spiracles in cockroach is: 11413093

(a) Six (b) Eight

74. The main tracheae divide and subdivide forming very fine tubules called: 11413094

(a) Tracheids (b) Bronchioles

75. Intake of air is known as: 11413095

(a) Inhalation (b) Inspiration

76. The removal of consumed air out of the lungs is called: 11413096

(a) Exhalation (b) Expiration

77. The lungs of birds have developed several extensions known as: 11413097

(a) Air sacs (b) Air penetrations

78. The inflated air sacs act as bellows and send air into the parabronchi for: 11413098

(a) Digestion

(b) Gaseous exchange

(d) Transport

79. In man, alveolar ducts ultimately lead into the: 11413099

(a) Air sac (b) Alveolar sac

80. The opening of larynx is called: 11413100

(a) Epiglottis (b) Pharynx

81. In the glottis the mucous membrane is stretched across into two thin edged fibrous bands called: 11413101

(a) Choral bands

(b) Verbal cords

(d) Vocal cords

82. The vocal cords help in voice production, when vibrated by: 11413102

(a) Air (b) Water

83. The trachea or wind pipe is a tubular structure lying ventral to the: 11413103

(a) Vertebral column

(b) Oesophagus

(d) Pulmonary trunk

84. There are a series of C shaped cartilage rings in the wall of: 11413104

(a) Oesophagus

(b) Aorta

(d) Superior-vena cava

85. Each air-sac is like a cluster of grapes and consists of several microscopic single layered structures called: 11413105

(a) Villi (b) Tracheoles

86. The air-sac is the functional unit of the:

(a) Lungs (b) Gills 11413106

87. Walls of the chest cavity are composed of ribs and: 11413107

(a) Pterohyoid muscles

(b) Intercostals muscles

(d) Costal muscles

88. Hemoglobin is contained in the: 11413108

(a) White blood corpuscles

(b) Platelets

(d) Megakaryocytes

89. In human beings the respiratory pigment is: 11413109

(a) Myoglobin (b) Actoglobin

90. The maximum amount of oxygen which normal human 100 ml blood absorbs and carries at the sea-level is about: 11413110

(a) 20 ml (b) 30 ml

91. At 100mm mercury haemoglobin contains 19.6 ml of oxygen per 100ml of: 11413111

(a) Water (b) Blood

92. Carboxy haemoglobin is formed when carbon dioxide, combines with amino group of: 11413112

(a) Insulin (b) Myoglobin

93. When blood leaves the capillary bed most of the carbon dioxide is in the form of: 11413113

(a) Carbonate ions (b) Carbon dioxide

94. Small amount of carbon dioxide is also carried by corpuscles combined with:

(a) Sodium (b) Potassium 11413114

95. 100 ml of arterial blood contains carbon dioxide about: 11413115

(a) 50 ml (b) 40 ml

96. As blood passes through the tissues, each 100 ml of blood takes up carbon dioxide just: 11413116

(a) 2 ml (b) 3 ml

97. As blood passes through the lungs, each 100 ml of blood gives off carbon dioxide about: 11413117

(a) 2 ml (b) 3 ml

98. A disease of lungs in which inside of the lung is damaged resulting in cough and fever: 11413118

(a) Systemic tuberculosis

(b) Pulmonary tuberculosis

(d) Carcinoma

99. Asthmas also a serious respiratory disease associated with severe paroxysm of difficult: 11413119

(a) Digestion (b) Circulation

100. Emphysema is a break down of 11413120

(a) Alveoli (b) Bronchioles

101. Myoglobin is also known as: 11413121

(a) Bone haemoglobin

(b) Muscle haemoglobin

(d) Nervous haemoglobin

102. Haemoglobin is a general name of a group of related compounds which consist of: 11413122

(a) Calcium porphyrin

(b) Silver porphyrin

(d) Platinum porphyrin

103. In an adult human being when the lungs are fully inflated the total inside capacity of lung is about: 11413123

(a) 8 litres (b) 15 litres

104. The volume of air taken inside the lungs and expelled during exercise is about: 11413124

(a) 3.5 litres (b) 6.5 litres

105. During exercise the per minute breathing rate may rise to: 11413125

(a) 30 times (b) 40 times

106. The arteries associated with lungs are called: 11413126

(a) Hepatic arteries

(b) Gastric arteries

(d) Jugular arteries

107. With regard to respiratory apparatus, which is not the correct pair? 11413127

(a) Insects - tracheoles

(b) Earthworm - Moist skin

(d) Flat worms - flame cells

108. Functional unit of lungs is: 11413128

(a) Air sacs (b) Villus

109. After heavy exercise which one of the blood vessels contains many more bicarbonate ions in plasma: 11413129

(a) Aorta (b) Pulmonary vein

110. Human blood transports the gases like:

(a) O₂ only 11413130

(b) CO₂ only

(d) H₂ and O₂

111. The % age of nitrogen in expired air is:

(a) 72.02 % (b) 16.4 % 11413131

112. The oxidation of food takes place at a temperature: 11413132

(a) Lower than body temp

(b) Higher than body temp.

(d) None of these

113. Which among the following is a factor for the transport of oxygen in blood? 11413133

(a) Carbon dioxide concentration

(b) Hydrogen ion concentration

(d) All of the above

114. At alveoli level, diffusion occurs due to differential ____ pressure of gases: 11413134

(a) Partial (b) Blood

115. O₂ is transported in dissolved state in water is 11413135

(a) 3% (b) 0.3%

116. CO₂ is carried by blood in which of the following forms? 11413136

(a) CO₂ is combined with haemoglobin & other blood proteins

(b) It is transported as CO₂

(d) All options

117. Even after maximum exhalation some air always remains in the lungs and is called:

(a) Residual volume 11413137

(b) Left over volume

(d) Expired volume

118. Common passage for both food and air is: 11413138

(a) Larynx (b) Pharynx

119. Alveolar ventilation is also called

11413139

(a) Breathing (b) Eating

SELECTED FROM BOARD PAPERS

i. The iron containing protein pigment present in muscle fibres is or Respiratory pigment present in muscles is called: (Board 2004) 11413140

(a) haemoglobin (b) myoglobin

ii. In the birds, lungs have tiny thin walled ducts called (Board-2008) 11413141

(a) parabronchi (b) paratrachea

iii. In earthworm, the exchange of gases occurs mainly through (Board 2005) 11413142

(a) lungs (b) gills

iv. The respiratory system is most efficient in (Board 2004, 06,-07) 11413143

(a) Birds (b) Amphibians

v. Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase / oxygenase (rubisco) fixes oxygen instead of carbon dioxide in process

(Board-2008) 11413144

(a) Glycolysis

(b) Photorespiration

(d) Respiration

Short Questions

Q.1. Why oxygen can be obtained more easily from air than from water?

(Board 2014) 11413145

Q.2. Why are the disadvantages of water as respiratory medium in, comparison with air? 11413146

Q.3. How land plants and aquatic plants get oxygen? 11413147

Q.4. What are lenticels? 11413148

Q.5. How rubisco decides to go which way i.e., either to act as oxygenase or carboxylase? 11413149

Q.6. It is observed that if photorespiration is inhibited chemically the plant can still grow. Then why photorespiration exists? 11413150

Q.7. In a hot and dry day the level of oxygen inside the leaf rises. Why? 11413151

Q.8. How gills are ventilated in fish? 11413152

Q.9. What is operculum?(Board 2013) 11413153

Q.10. What are gill slits? 11413154

Q.11. What do you understand by counter current exchange? 11413155

Q.12. What are parabronchi? (Board 2009, 13, 14, 15) 11413156

Q.13. What are the air sacs? 11413157

Q.14. Differentiate between organismic and cellular respiration. 11413158

Q.15. What is the difference between epiglottis and glottis? 11413159

Q.16. What is the need of respiration or gaseous exchange? 11413160

Q.17. What are tracheae? 11413161

Q.18. What are spiracles? 11413162

Q.19. What are tracheoles? 11413163

Q.20. What is cutaneous respiration? (Board 2013, 15) 11413164

Q.21. Define pulmonary respiration. (Board 2015) 11413165

Q.22. Differentiate between inspiration (inhalation) and expiration (exhalation).

11413166

Q.23. Name different parts of air passage way of man. 11413167

Q.24. Into how many passage ways, the nasal cavity is divided? 11413168

Q.25. What are the functions of the nasal cavities? (Board 2013) 11413169

Q.26. What is larynx or voice box? 11413170

Q.27. Differentiate between glottis and epiglottis. 11413171

Q.28. What are vocal cords? 11413172

Q.29. What is trachea or windpipe? 11413173

Q.30. Differentiate between bronchi and bronchioles. 11413174

Q.31. What are alveoli? (Board 2015) 11413175

Q.32. What is the functional unit of lungs? 11413176

Q.33. How lungs are connected to outside? 11413177

Q.34. Why lungs are spongy? 11413178

Q.35. Define breathing. 11413179

Q.36. What is the rate of breathing in man during rest? 11413180

Q.37. How does carbon dioxide affect the oxygen-carrying capacity of haemoglobin?

(Board 2013) 11413181

Q.38. What is Cancer or carcinoma? (Board 2014) 11413182

Q.39. How does temperature affect the oxygen-carrying capacity of haemoglobin?

11413183

Q.40. How does pH affect the oxygen-carrying capacity of haemoglobin? 11413184

Q.41. How is Carboxy haemoglobin formed? 11413185

Q.42. How is most of the carbon dioxide carried by blood? 11413186

Q.43. What is the cause of tuberculosis? 11413187

Q.44. What is asthma? 11413188

Q.45. In human being what is the total inside capacity of lungs when fully inflated?

(Board 2010) 11413189

Q.46. What is the residual volume of lungs? 11413190

Q.47. What is Emphysema? 11413191

Q.48. What is the respiratory pigment of human beings? 11413192

Q.49. How oxyhaemoglobin is formed? 11413193

Q.50. What is the maximum amount of oxygen which normal human blood absorbs and carries at the sea-level? 11413194

SELECTED FROM BOARD PAPERS

Q.1 What is photorespiration? (Board-2004, 07, 13, 15) 11413195

Q.2 What are spiracles? (Board-2007) 11413196

Ans. Q.3 Why is air a better respiratory medium? (Board-2008) 11413197

Q.4 Differentiate between inspiration (inhalation) and expiration (exhalation).

(Board-2007) 11413198

Q.5 What is diaphragm? (Board-2005) 11413199

Q.6 What are pleura? (Board -2005) 11413200

Q.7 What is the concentration of carbon dioxide in arterial and venous blood?

(Board 2006,14) 11413201

Q.8 What are the causes of asthma? (Board 2007, 12) 11413202

Q.9 What are the two properties of a respiratory surface? (Board 2006, 07, 15) 11413203

Q.10 How does gaseous exchange occur in frog? (Board-2008) 11413204

Q.11 What is diving reflex in cetaceans? (Board 2008, 13, 14) 11413205

Q.12 What is respiratory distress syndrome? (Board 2013, 2015) 11413206

Q.13 What is pulmonary tuberculosis? (Board 2013) 11413207

Unit 14

Transport

Objectives + Short Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

(Plant Portion)

1. One of the important nutrients which is almost always in short supply both in rock particles and in the soil water is the:11414025

a) Carbon b) Phosphorus

c) Nitrogen d) Sulphur

2. The mycorrhizal fungi facilitate the uptake of phosphorous and trace metals such as copper and: 11414026

a) Manganese b) Zinc

c) Iodine d) Sodium

3. The processes involved in getting the materials into and out of cells are: 11414027

a) Diffusion and osmosis

b) Active and passive transport

c) Endocytosis and exocytosis

d) All of these

4. The nutrients needed by the plants are:11414028

a) Carbon dioxide, water and the sugars

b) Water, minerals and proteins

c) Carbon dioxide, water and minerals

d) Proteins, sugars and water

5. Most of the uptake of water and minerals from the soil takes place through the: 11414029

a) Roots b) Root hairs

c) Epidermal cells d) Root cap

6. Of the total surface area of roots, root hairs constitute about: 11414030

a) 57% b) 67%

c) 77% d) 87%

7. The uptake of minerals by root cells takes place by: 11414031

a) Active transport b) Passive transport

c) Active and passive transport

d) None of these

8. Prosopis trees have maximum depth of their roots, which is 50 metres, belong to family: 11414032

a) Solanaceae b) Poaceae

c) Leguminoseae d) Rosaceae

9. The movement of water molecules from a region of higher water potential to a region of lower water potential through a partially permeable membrane is called: 11414033

a) diffusion b) osmosis

c) imbibitions d) active transport

10. Which pathway is taken by water in root to reach xylem? 11414034

a) Apoplast b) Symplast

c) Apoplast and symplast

d) None of the above

11. The casparian strips are present in the: 11414035

a) Cortex cells of the roots (Board 2015)

b) Cells of pericycle c) Cells of phloem

d) Endodermis cells of roots

12. The mechanism employed by animals to maintain amount of water and salts in their Cells to a constant or nearly constant levels is: 11414036

a) Osmoregulation b) Homeostasis

c) Excretion d) Perspiration

13. Full turgidity, maximum pressure potential is achieved when a cell is placed in: 11414037

a) pure water b) distilled water

c) both a & b d) conc. solution

14. As the pressure potential of the cell increases due to endosmosis the cell becomes: 11414038

a) Flaccid b) Turgid

c) Flabby d) Shrinked

15. At incipient plasmolysis the protoplast has just ceased to exert any pressure against the cell wall, so the cell is: 11414039

a) Flaccid b) Turgid

c) Flabby d) Limp

16. The shrinkage of protoplast, due to exosmosis of water is called: 11414040

a) Deplasmolysis b) Plasmolysis

c) Incipient plasmolysis d) Prosopsis

17. If pressure greater than atmospheric pressure is applied to pure water or a solution, its water potential: 11414041

a) Decreases

b) Remains the same

c) Increases

d) First increase then decrease

18. The energy possessed by water molecules is: 11414042

a) Kinetic b) Potential

c) Heat d) Solar

19. Active transport is selective and is dependent on: 11414043

a) Nutrition b) Respiration

c) Digestion d) Circulation

20. The passive uptake involves: 11414044

a) Plasmolysis b) Cohesion

c) Imbibitions d) Diffusion

21. The active uptake involves the use of energy in the form of: 11414045

a) TTP b) GTP

c) ATP d) CTP

22. Most of the minerals enter the root hairs or epidermal cells of roots along with water in: 11414046

a) Mass flow b) Bulk flow

c) Rapid flow d) Volume flow

23. There are three types of nutrients needed by the plants, viz, Carbon dioxide, water and: 11414047

a) Minerals b) Ions

c) Metals d) Oxygen

24. A measure of the change in water potential of a system due to the presence of solute molecules is called: 11414048

a) Hydro-potential

b) Osmotic potential

c) Solute potential d) Both b & c

25. In the roots apoplast pathway becomes discontinuous in the endoderm is due to the presence of: 11414049

a) Plasmodesma b) endodermis

c) casparian strips d) bark

26. Cytoplasmic strands that extend through pores in adjacent cell wall are: 11414050

a) Plasmodesmata b) Plasmofibre

c) Plasmofilament d) Plasmostring

27. Movement across membranes occurs without the expenditure of cellular energy by: 11414051

a) Endocytosis b) Active transport

c) Diffusion d) Exosmosis

28. The membrane of vacuole is known as the: 11414052

a) Apoplast b) Symplast

c) Tonoplast d) Protoplast

29. The process that most likely enables a root hair cell to absorb minerals by active transport and enables a muscle cell to contract is the: 11414053

a) Circulation b) Excretion

c) Assimilation d) Respiration

30. The movement of water from a weak solution to a strong solution through a differentially permeable membrane is known as: 11414054

a) Diffusion b) Osmosis

c) Exudation d) Imbibition

31. Active transport is the movement of a substance from a place of its low concentration to a place of its high concentration through a membrane against the law of: 11414055

a) Diffusion b) Osmosis

c) Plasmolysis d) Imbibition

32. The shrinkage of the cytoplasmic contents from a plant cell under the action of some strong solution is known as: 11414056

a) Photolysis b) Plasmolysis

c) Deplasmolysis d) Osmosis

33. The point at which plasmolysis is just about to happen is called -----------plasmolysis. 11414057

a) Initial b) Incipient

c) Embryonic d) Early

34. Cohesion-tension theory regarding ascent of sap was proposed by: 11414058

a) Sack b) Dixon

c) Curtis d) Ford

35. The water is conducted up in the body of the plant through the xylem vessels and: 11414059

a) Sieve tubes b) Companion cells

c) Tracheids d) Cambium

36. Guttation (Exudation) is the loss of water, under the influence of high root pressure, from the tips of the leaves through the:

(Board 2013) 11414060

a) Stomata b) Lenticels

c) Hydathodes d) Cuticle

37. Cohesion tension theory was proposed by: (Board 2014) 11414061

a) Jolly b) Dixon & Jolly

c) Dixon d) Linnaeus

38. The force of attraction among water molecules is: (Board 2014) 11414062

a) Adhesion b) Tension

c) Cohesion d) Solidity

39. In plants, the xylem water tension is strong enough to pull water up: 11414063

a) More than 600 feet b) 200 meters

c) 400 meters d) both a & b

40. The component of cell wall having great affinity with water is: 11414064

a) Glucose b) Cellulose

c) Starch d) Glycogen

41. Root pressure is created by the active secretion of salts and other solutes from the other cells into: 11414065

a) Xylem sap b) Phloem sap

c) Ascent of sap d) Salt sap

42. Sacks in 1874 suggest that the water molecules move along the cell walls of xylem vessels due to: 11414066

a) Diffusion b) Imbibition

c) Osmosis d) Active transport

43. It has been estimated that a positive hydrostatic pressure of around, 100 to 200 kpa is generated by: 11414067

a) Transpiration b) Root pressure

c) Guttation d) Evaporation

44. The volume of dry seed may increase up to 200 times by: 11414068

a) Diffusion b) Osmosis

c) Imbibitions d) active transport

45. The process in which a substance swells up by absorbing water but does not dissolve in it is referred to as: 11414069

a) Exudation b) Plasmolysis

c) Imbibition d) Diffusion

46. The manifestations of the root pressure in plants are the guttation and: 11414070

a) Exudation b) Imbibition

c) Osmosis d) Bleeding

47. Of the total transpiration, 5 to 7 percent takes place through the: 11414071

a) Cuticle of leaves b) Stomata

c) Lenticels d) Hydathodes

48. The small openings found in the bark of the higher plants through which 1 to 2% of water is transpired are called. 11414072

a) Hydathodes b) Stomata

c) Lenticels d) Ostia

49. The stomata are confined only to the lower epidermis of the leaves called as: 11414073

a) Isobilateral b) Dorsiventral

c) Compound d) None of these

50. The evaporation of water from the aerial parts of the plants especially through stomata of leaves is a process called: 11414074

a) Perspiration b) Aspiration

c) Respiration d) Transpiration

51. Guttation is loss of liquid water through water secreting glands or: 11414075

a) Hydathodes b) Stomata

c) Pores d) Apertures

52. The transpiration is 1-2% of the total transpiration by a plant. 11414076

a) Cuticular b) Lenticular

c) Stomatal d) Epidermal

53. The only photosynthesizing cells of epidermis of leaf are: 11414077

a) Cortex cells b) Mesophyll

c) Guard cells d) Xylem cells

54. The plants open their stomata by actively pumping in guard cells. 11414078

a) Calcium b) Magnesium

c) Sodium d) Potassium

55. Very high environmental temperature that cause closure of stomata: 11414079

a) 10-15°C b) 20-25°C

c) 30-35°C d) 40-45°C

56. The leaves in which the stomata are present in both upper and lower epidermis are called: 11414080

a) Isobilateral b) Dorsilateral

c) Ventrilateral d) Bilateral

57. 90% of total transpiration is: 11414081

a) Cuticular b) Stomatal

c) Lenticular d) None of these

58. The only photosynthesizing cells of epidermis of leaf are: 11414082

a) Cortex cells b) Pericycle cells

c) Guard cells d) Mesophyl

59. The active transport of potassium ions into the guard cells is stimulated by low concentration of: 11414083

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen

c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen

60. At night cellular respiration in the absence of photosynthesis raises the level of:

a) O₂ b) H₂O 11414084

c) H₂ d) CO₂

61. Minerals dissolved in water are distributed throughout plant body by: 11414085

a) Transpiration stream

b) Root pressure

c) Guttation d) Bleeding

62. The loss of water in the form of water vapours through the cuticle of leaves is called: 11414086

a) Lenticular transpiration

b) Stomatal transpiration

c) Cuticular transpiration

d) Transpiration stream

63. Lenticular transpiration is the loss of water vapours through lenticels present in the: 11414087

a) Leaf b) Root

c) Flower d) Stem

64. The rate of transpiration doubles by every rise of in temperature, 11414088

a) 5°C b) 10°C

c) 20°C d) 15°C

65. In isobilateral leaves the stomata are present in the: 11414089

a) Upper epidermis

b) Lower epidermis

c) Upper and lower epidermis both

d) None of the above

66. Which of the following is not true of guard cells? 11414090

a) They are present in the epidermis of leaf

b) They are connected by plasmodesmata with other epidermal cells

c) They contain chloroplasts

d) They are kidney-shaped

67. The total transpiration taking place through cuticle is: (Board 2014) 11414091

a) 5-7% b) 1-7%

c) 5-6% d) 2-5%

68. Of the total water transpired from the plant surface, 90% is lost through the: 11414092

a) Epidermal cells b) Stomata

c) Hydathodes d) Cuticle

69. The opening and closing of stomata can be explained by: 11414093

a) Starch-sugar hypothesis

b) Influx of potassium ions hypothesis

c) Pressure flow hypothesis

d) Starch-sugar and influx of potassium ions hypotheses

70. Transpiration is inversely proportional to:

a) Humidity b) Light 11414094

c) Temperature d) Wind

71. At high temperature, the wilting mesophyll cells of the leaves release a hormone termed as the: 11414095

a) Indole acetic acid b) Abscisic acid

c) Ascorbic acid d) Boric acid

72. Each sieve tube is associated with one or more: 11414096

a) Parenchyma cells b) Sclereids

c) Companion cells

d) Sclerenchyma cells

73.Which cells supply ATP and proteins to sieve tubes? (Board 2015) 11414097

a) Companion cells b) Epidermal

c) Tracheid d) Vessel

74. In order to suck the juice, the aphids puncture the sieve-tubes of the stems or leaves of the plants by means of their:11414098

a) Styles b) Proboscis

c) Stylets d) Stalks

75. The aphids feed on the contents of the:11414099

a) Xylem b) Phloem

c) Cortex d) Pericycle

76. Pressure flow theory was proposed by Ernst Munch in: 11414100

a) 1927 b) 1928

c) 1929 d) 1930

77. According to pressure flow theory, which of the following serves as sink? 11414101

a) Leaves b) Green stem

c) Roots d) Bark

78. The cells of phloem that conduct or transport sugars and other organic material throughout the plant are called: 11414102

a) companion cells b) sclereids

c) fibres d) sieve elements

79. Pressure flow theory is the most acceptable theory for the transport in the phloem of: 11414103

a) Angiosperms b) Gymnosperms

c) Ferns d) Mosses

80. The pressure flow hypothesis was first proposed by in 1930: 11414104

a) Ernst Haeckel b) Ernst Munch

c) Fleming d) Dixon

81. The flow of solution in the sieve elements is driven by an osmotically generated pressure gradient between: 11414105

a) source and resource

b) swim and sink

c) source and sink

d) basin and sink

82. The sucrose and other substances move in the sieve tube cells by: 11414106

a) Hydraulic pressure

b) Root pressure

c) Pressure potential

d) Hydrostatic pressure

83. The volume of dry seed may increase up to 200 times by: (Board 2013) 11414107

a) Diffusion

b) Osmosis

c) Imbibition

d) Active transport

Animal portion ( Second half)

Transport in Hydra, Planaria, open and closed Blood vascular system and

evolution of heart

1. The Circulatory system found in animals belonging to phylum Arthropoda, Mollusca, and groups of protochordates, the tunicates is: 11414108

a) Open b) Closed

c) Both d) Complex

2. The heart of reptiles and all other amniotes practically function as chambered heart.

a) three b) four 11414109

c) two d) five

3. The pairs of lateral hearts in earthworm are: 11414110

a) 4 or 5 b) 5 or 6

c) 6 d) 7

4. The heart is 13, chambered tubular vessel in: 11414111

a) cockroach b earthworm

b) leech d) frog

5. The heart of fishes have sinus venosus, an atrium a ventricle, and: 11414112

a) Aorta b) Conus arteriosus

c) Bulbus venosus d) Truncus arteriosus

6. The heart of fishes works as a: 11414113

a) Single circuit heart

b) Double circuit heart

c) Both a & b

d) Triple circuit heart

7. Each heart chamber of cockroach has a pair of lateral openings, called: 11414114

a) osculum b) ostia

c) apertures d) orifice

8. If blood comes in direct contact with other body cells and bathes them, such a circulatory system is called: 11414115

a) Closed b) Open

c) Mixed d) Complex

9. The heart is three chambered with regard to auricles & ventricles in: 11414116

a) mammals b) amphibians

c) reptiles d) birds

10. The heart of amphibians is a beginning of:

a) single circuit heart 11414117

b) double circuit heart

c) triple circuit heart
d) tetra circuit heart

11. In reptiles, the pulmonary trunk starts on right side of ventricle from a pocket the: 11414118

a) cavum pulmonale b) cavum arteriole

c) cavum venosum d) cavum systemic

12. In reptiles systemic arches arise from a region of ventricle called: 11414119

a) cavum pulmonale b) cavum arteriole

c) cavum venosum

d) cavum systemica

13. In birds and mammals, the pulmonary trunk arises from right ventricle and leads to the: 11414120

a) heart b) lungs

c) liver d) kidney

14. The right systemic, most of it, disappears in: 11414121

a) mammals b) amphibians

c) reptiles d) birds

15. The left systemic disappears in: 11414122

a) fishes b) amphibians

c) reptiles d) birds

16) In birds and mammals, the aortic trunk emerges from the left ventricle and leads to carotid and: 11414123

a) coronary arches

b) pulmonary arches

c) systemic arches

d) jugular arches

Transport in man, Blood and blood disorder

1. In male a cubic millimeter blood contains 5 to 5.5 million of: 11414124

a) Lymphocyte b) Erythrocyte

c) Platelets d) Monocytes

2. In female a cubic millimeter of blood contains 4 to 4.5 million of: 11414125

a) Monocytes b) Neutrophils

c) Platelets d) Erythrocyte

3. The blood of man contains: 11414126

a) Red blood cells only

b) Red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets

c) Plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets.

d) White blood cells, red blood cells and plasma.

4. 90% by weight of the human blood plasma is: a) Water b) Proteins 11414127

c) Salts d) Sugar

5. In the blood plasma of man, the amount of inorganic ions and salts by weight is: 11414128

a) 0.8 % b) 0.9 %

c) 1.0 % d) 1.1 %

6. The fluid consisting of 90% water & 10% dissolved substances is: 11414129

a) lymph b) plasma

c) interstitial fluid d) coelomic fluid

7. The white blood cells which have life spans of months or even years are: 11414130

a) monocytes b) basophils

c) lymphocytes d) eosinophils

8. Platelets are not cells, but are fragments of large cells called: 11414131

a) microkaryocytes b) karyocytes

c) megakaryocytes d) karyokinesis

9. 95% of the cytoplasm of red blood cells is the red pigment called: 11414132

a) myoglobin b) haemoglobin

c) immunoglobin d) globulin

10. By volume of the blood, in a normal person, plasma constituted about: 11414133

a) 15% b) 25%

c) 45% d) 55%

11. An important role in body's defences against disease is played: 11414134

a) Immunoglobulin b) antibodies

c) antigens d) both a & b

12. In blood clotting process, Prothrombin acts as a: 11414135

a) channel b) catalyst

c) vehicle d) means

13. The number of platelets per cubic millimeter of blood is about: 11414136

a) 100,000 b) 150, 000

c) 200,000 d) 250,000

14. By weight of the plasma, the plasma proteins constitute: (Board 2013) 11414137

a) 7 - 9 % b) 5-7%

c) 3 - 5% d) 1-7%

15. Cholesterol serves as precursor of: 11414138

a) protein hormones b)adenoid hormones

c) steroid hormones d) glucoid hormones

16. The average life span of red blood cell is about: 11414139

a) two months b) four months

c) three months d) six months

17. Granulocytes are formed in the: 11414140

a) red bone marrow b) thymus

c) tonsils d) adenoids

18. The agranulocytes are formed in lymphoid tissue, such as those of: 11414141

a) adenoids b) thymus

c) tonsils d) All of these

19. Red blood cells are formed principally in the red bone narrow of short bones, such as: 11414142

a) sternum b) ribs

c) vertebrae d) All of these

20. In the embryonic life, RBC are formed in the liver and: 11414143

a) spleen d) kidney

c) stomach d) heart

21. Granulocytes survive for: 11414144

a) one week b) two weeks

c) three weeks d) four weeks

22. Basophils produce heparin a substance that inhibits: 11414145

a) Blood transfusion b) Blood clotting

c) Bleeding d) Inflamation

23. The colloid osmotic pressure of the blood is maintained by: 11414146

a) plasma antibodies b) plasma salts

c) plasma proteins d) plasma sugars

24. Leukemia is the result of uncontrolled production of: (Board 2015) 11414147

a) leucocytes b) white blood cells

c) erythrocytes d) both a & b

25. Thalassaemia is also called: 11414148

a) Cooley's anemia b) Thomas anemia

c) Peter's anemia d) Mendel's anemia

26. On cubic millimetr of blood contains 7000 to 8000 of: 11414149

a) erythrocytes b) platelets

c) leucocytes d) sporophytes

27. Granulocytes include: 11414150

a) neutrophils b) eosinophils

c) basophils d) all of these

28. Thalassaemja is a genetically transmitted abnormality of: 11414151

a) Myoglobin b) Haemoglogin

c) Immunoglobin d) Albumin

29. The exchange and concentration of minerals and ions in the blood and body cells is disturbed in: 11414152

a) Thalassaemia b) Blue babies

c) Oedema d) Cerebral infarction

30. The normal pH of human blood is: 11414153 a) 4.7 b) 7.0

c) 7.4 d) 8

31. The protein that acts as a catalyst in blood clotting process in human beings is called: 11414154

a) Fibrin b) Fibrinogen

c) Thrombin d) Prothrombin

32. The average life of the red blood cell of man is: 11414155

a) One month b) Two months

c) Three months d) Four months

33. The most numerous cells in the blood of man are the: 11414156

a) Monocytes b) Lymphocytes

c) Erythrocytes d) Leucocytes

34. What is not true for human red blood cells? 11414157

a) They are biconcave
b) They contain hemoglobin

c) They have nucleus

d) They are most numerous of all the blood cells

35. A white substance called pus is produced at infection sites due to killing of: 11414158

a) Monocytes b) Neutrophils

c) Monocytcs and neutrophils
d) Platelets

36. The red blood cells of the adult human beings are manufactured in the: 11414159

a) Spleen b) Liver

c) Bone marrow d) Kidney

37. The basophils of human blood produce a chemical that participates in allergy reactions and is known as the: 11414160

a) Heparin b) Histamine

c) Purine d) Pyrimidine

38. Genetic haemoglobin abnormality which causes enlargement of spleen and changes in the bones and the skin is termed as: 11414161

a) Leucaemia b) Thalassaemia

c) Oedema d) Myopia

39. Blood cancer is also called: 11414162 a) Leucaemia b) Thalassaemia

c) Anaemia d) Glycaemia

40. The disease, which means the presence of excess fluid in the tissues of the body is: 11414163

a) Thalassamia b) Obesity

c) oedema d) cyanosis

Human heart, problems and blood vessels

1. The protective membrane of human heart is called: 11414164

a) Pericardium b) Epicardium

c) Myocardium d) Endocardium

2. Cardiac muscle can be distinguished from other muscles because they: 11414165

a) Contain only actin
b) Are voluntary in action

c) Lack regular arrangement of sarcomere

d) Have intercalated discs

3. In man, the blood is supplied to all the parts of the body, except the lungs, through the: 11414166

a) Superior vena cava

b) Inferior vena cava

c) Atria

d) Aorta

4. The opening of the right atrium of the heart of man into the right ventricle is guarded by a 11414167

a) Semi-lunar valve b) Tricuspid valve

c) Bicuspid valve d) Aortic valve

5. The wall of the human heart is made up of: a) Smooth muscles 11414168

b) Voluntary muscles

c) Skeletal muscles

d) Cardiac muscles

6. In each leg of man the iliac artery divides into the: 11414169

a) Femoral arteries

b) Sciatic arteries

c) Femoral and the sciatic arteries d) Caroted arteries

7. What is not true for pulmonary artery?11414170

a) It carries oxygenated blood
b) It takes blood to lungs

c) It arises from right ventricle d) It has semi lunar valve at its base

8. Each heart beat (cycle) of man takes: 11414171 a) One second b) 0.6 seconds

c) 0.8 second d) 1.2 second

9. In humans, the aorta bifurcates at the lower abdomen into the: 11414172

a) Femoral arteries

b) Sciatic arteries

c) Iliac arteries

d) Mesenteric arteries

10. The renal veins brings deoxygenated blood from the: (Board 2015) 11414173

a) Liver b) Spleen

c) Kidneys d) Lungs

11. Which vein does not pour blood in vena cava? 11414174

a) Hepatic vein b) Renal vein

c) Hepatic portal vein d) Iliac vein

12. Relaxation of heart chambers is called 11414175

a) Diastole b) Systole

c) Expansion d) Contraction

13. Heart beat sound is due to: 11414176

a) Contraction of muscles
b) Contraction of atria

c) Contraction of ventricles
d) Action of valves in heart

14. Which represents the heart sound? 11414177

a) Lubb dub b) Lubb Lubb

c) Dubb dub d) Dub lubb

15. Heart beat sound can be heard with the help of: 11414178

a) Microscope b) Telescope

c) Stethoscope d) Sphignomonometer

16. Electrical impulses in human heart arise from: 11414179

a) S.A. node b) A.V. node

c) Inter node d) Cardiac node

17. The measure of the force with which, blood pushes up against blood vessels walls is: 11414180

a) aortic pressure

b) blood force

c) atmospheric pressure
d) blood pressure

18. Blockage of blood vessel in the heart by an embolus causes necrosis or damage to portion of heart muscles, it is known as: 11414181

a) Heart attack b) Stroke

c) Oedema d) Thalassaemia

19. Electric current of heart impulse can be recorded as: 11414182

a) Electro cardiograph
b) Electro cardiogram

c) Electrograph d) Electrogram

20. The sites where exchange of materials between blood and body tissues takes place are the: 11414183

a) Arteries b) Veins

c) Capillaries d) Lacteals

21. Which of the following is true about mammals? 11414184

a) They have right aortic arch only
b) They have left aortic arch only

c) They have right end left aortic arches

d) They do not have any aortic arch

22. What is another name for thrombus? 11414185

a) Clot b) Plague

c) Lipid d) Block

23. Heart muscles contain myofibrils and myofilaments of: 11414186

a) myosin & insulin b) actin & insulin

c) keratin & collagen d) myosin & actin

24. A solid mass or plug of blood constituents is called: 11414187

a) Thrombin b) Thrombus

c) Prothrombin d) Fibrinogen

25. Diastolic pressure in normal individuals ranges between: 11414188

a) 70-80 mmHg b) 80-90 mmHg

c) 75-85 mmHg d) 85-95 mmHg

26. Heart pumps the blood to different parts of the body via: 11414189

a) superior vena cava b) inferior vena cava

c) aorta and arteries d) hepatic Portal vein

27. The heart is enclosed in a double membranous sac the: 11414190

a) pleural cavity b) abdominal cavity

c) thoracic cavity d) pericardial cavity

28. Cardiac muscles have branching system of cells, in which the successive cells are separated by specialized dual junctions called: 11414191

a) intervertebral discs

b) intercalated discs

c) internodes d) Schwan cells

29. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body via: 11414192

a) vena cava b) aorta

c) pulmonary trunk d) both a & b

30. Failure of interarterial foramen to close or of ductus arteriosus to fully constrict results in: 11414193

a) cyanosis b) arteriosclerosis

c) sclerosis d) arrogance

31. A condition of high blood pressure is called: 11414194

a) Hypotension b) Hypertension

c) Tension d) depression

32. Rate of flow of blood is 400 -500 mm/s in

a) vena cava b) aorta 11414195

c) capillaries d) pulmonary vein

33. The condition which causes narrowing and hardening of arteries is: 11414196

a) Atherosclerosis b) Necrosis

c) Sclerosis d) Atrosclerosis

34. The blood is passed on to right ventricle through: 11414197

a) bicuspid valve b) tricuspid valve

c) semilunar valve d) sino-atrial node

35. The flaps of tricuspid valves are attached with fibrous cords called chordeae tendinae to papillary muscles of: 11414198

a) ventricle b) atrium

c) sinus venosus d) Atrial venosus

36. At the base of aorta, the valves present are:

11414199

a) bicuspid valve b) tricuspid valve

c) sino-atrial node d) semilunar valve

37. In the lower abdominal region, aorta bifurcates into two main branches; the right and left: 11414200

a) femoral arteries b) iliac arteries

c) sciatic arteries d) mesenteric arteries

38. Two iliac veins unite to form: 11414201

a) inferior vena cava b) superior vena cava

c) interior vena cava d) exterior vena cava

39. The tricuspid and bicuspid valves close, and the sound produced is: 11414202

a) jub b) hub

c) dub d) lub

40. One complete heart beat lasts for about: 11414203

a) 0.8 seconds b) 0.4 seconds

c) 0.16 seconds d) 0.2 seconds

41. The arteries divide into smaller vessels called: 11414204

a) venules b) arterioles

c) capillaries d) tracheoles

42. The oxygenated blood from the lungs is brought to left atrium by: 11414205

a) pulmonary arteries b) pulmonary veins

c) coronary veins d) coronary arteries

43. Thrombosis is the formation of: 11414206

a) Thrombus b) Thrombin

c) Thymus d) Thyroid

44. The discharge of blood from blood vessels is called: 11414207

a) Bleeding b) Haemorrhage

c) Hemophilia d) Elimination

45. Systolic pressure in normal individuals is:

11414208

a) 100 mmHg b) 110 mmHg

c) 120 mm Hg d) 130 mm Hg

46. Capillaries are blood vessels with walls that are only: 11414209

a) one cell thick b) two cell thick

c) four cell thick d) eight cell thick

47. In conduction from the S-A node to A-V node, there is a delay of about: 11414210

a) 0.7 seconds b) 0.4 seconds

c) 0.15 seconds d) 0.2 seconds

48. The pulmonary trunk arises from the:

11414211

a) left atrium b) right atrium

c) left ventricle d) right ventricle.

49. Electrocardiogram helps to know the abnormalities in the rhythmicity or conduction system of the: 11414212

a) brain b) kidney

c) liver d) heart

50. Veins are the blood vessels which transport blood from body cells towards: 11414213

a) brain b) kidney

c) liver d) heart

51. Liver receives: 11414214

a) renal portal vein

b) abdominal portal vein

c) hepatic portal vein

d) gastric portal vein

52. The femoral and sciatic arteries arise from: 11414215

a) gastric arteries b) hepatic arteries

c) Iliac arteries d) mesenteric arteries

53. At the base of the pulmonary artery, valves present are: 11414216

a) bicuspid b) tricuspid

c) semilunar d) sino-atrial

54. The left auricle passes blood to the left ventricle via: 11414217

a) bicuspid valve b) tricuspid valve

c) semilunar valve d) sino-atrial node

55. At the base of aorta, first pair of arteries, the coronary arteries, arise, and supply blood to the: 11414218

a) heart b) shoulder

c) neck d) face

56. Which is related to brain? 11414219

a) Coronary b) Stroke

c) Myocardial d) Atheroma

57. The cause of heart attack may be: 11414220

a) Atherosclerosis b) Diabetes

c) Hypotension d) Obesity

58. Haemorrhage means discharge of: 11414221

a) Water b) Blood

c) Plasma d) Serum

59. What is not true for veins? 11414222

a) They bring blood back to heart

b) They all contain oxygenated blood

c) Veins are formed by union of capillaries

d) They have valves in them

Lymphatic system and immunity

1. Which of the following function is performed by the human lymphatic system? 11414223

a) It helps to defend the body against foreign invaders

b) Lymph nodes filter the lymph

c) It returns interstitial fluid back into the blood

d) All of the above

2. Antiserum means serum containing: 11414224

a) Antigens b) Antibodies

c) Hemoglobin d) Lymph

3. The components of immune system in human beings are the antibodies and the:

a) Lymphocytes B 11414225

b) Lymphocytes T

c) Lymphocytes B and T
d) Basophils and Eosinophils

4. Which type of nodes are present in the neck region, axilla and groin of humans?

11414226

a) Internodes b) Lymph nodes

c) Systemic nodes d) Arterial node

5. Antigen or immunogen is a foreign substance often a protein, which stimulates the formation of: 11414227

a) antiseptics b) anticoagulants

c) antisera d) antibodies

6. The lymph vessels have at certain points, masses of connective tissue called; 11414228

a) lymph nodes b) lymph goiter

c) spleen b) lacteals

7. In the intestine, the branches of lymph capillaries, within villi, are called: 11414229

a) arterioles b) tracheoles

c) lacteals d) caecae

8. The components of immune system include the lymphocytes B and T and the:

a) antigens b) monocytes11414230

c) antisera d) antibodies

9. Antibodies are manufactured in: 11414231

a) B-lymphocytes b) T -lymphocytes

c) Monocytes d) Eosinophil

SELECTED FROM BOARD PAPERS

1. The lymph most closely resembles with : (Board 2006) 11414232

a) Blood b) Interstitial fluid

c) Plasma d) Both a & b

2. The opening and closing of stomata is caused by the movement of ions: 11414233

a) Ca⁺² b) Mg⁺² (Board 2006)

c) K d) All of these

3. A major condition which leads to heart attack is: (Board 2007) 11414234

a) Arteriosclerosis b) Antherosclerosis

c) Hypertension d) Transpiration

4. Casparian strips are present in: 11414235

a) root cortex b) xylem
c) root endoderm d) phloem

5. The pathway involving system of adjacent cell walls which is continuous throughout the plant roots: (Board 2008) 11414236

a) Casprian strip b) apoplast

c) symplast d) vacuolar

6. Hydathodes are associated with: 11414237 (Board 2007) a) Osmosis b) Guttation

c) Bleeding d) Transpiration

7. Haemoglobin molecule in most cases, does not have chains in it, instead F chain is present: (B. 2008, 2012) 11414238

a) Oedma b) Leucaemia

c) Thalassaemia d) Anaemia

8. A substance produced by basophils that inhibit the blood clotting is: (Board 2013)

a) Fibrinogen b) Heparin 11414239

c) Histamine d) Globuline

9. Which is included in agranulocytes?11414240

(Board 2013)

a) Basophils b) Eosinophils

c) Lymphocytes d) Neutrophils

Short Questions

PLANTS (First Half)

1. What pathways are taken during absorption of water and minerals? 11414241

2. Define facilitated diffusion. 11414242

3. What is pressure potential? 11414243

4. Why animal cells cannot withstand higher pressure potential? 11414244

5. How does cohesion differ from adhesion? (B.2012) 11414245

6. What are hydathodes? 11414246

7. How hormones are involved in stomatal opening? 11414247

8. What is the role of aphids in the study of composition of phloem sap?

11414248

9. What do you mean by bulk or mass flow? 11414249

10. What is the difference between guttation and bleeding? (Board 2012, 14) 11414250

11. Define imbibition. 11414251

12. What are root hairs? Give their functions. 11414252

13. Define osmosis. 11414253

14. Differentiate between endosmosis and exosmosis. 11414254

15. Define symplast pathway. 11414255

16. What is vacuolar pathway 11414256

17. Define water potential. 11414257

18. What factors determine water potential? 11414258

19. Define osmotic potential. 11414259

20. What is osmoregulation? 11414260

21. What is ascent of sap? 11414261

22. Name the processes involved in ascent of sap. 11414262

23. What is traraspiration? 11414263

24. Define root pressure. 11414264

25. What are inhibitors of root pressure? 11414265

26. What are different types of transpiration? 11414266

27. Define stomatal transpiration.

(Board 2012) 11414267

28. What are lenticels? 11414268

29. How stomata open according to Starch-sugar hypothesis? 11414269

30. Differentiate between isobilateral and dorsiventral leaves. 11414270

31. How stomata close according to Starch-sugar hypothesis? 11414271

32. How stomata open according to influx of K⁺ ions? 11414272

33. How stomata close according to influx of K⁺ ions? 11414273

34. What are the controlling factors for K⁺ influx? 11414274

35. What factors affect rate of transpiration? 11414275

36. What are sieve elements? 11414276

37. What cells are found in phloem other than sieve elements? 11414277

38. Define pressure flow hypothesis. 11414278

(Board 2015)

39. How communication occurs between sieve tube and companion cells? 11414279

ANIMALS (Second Half)

40. There is no specialized transport system in Planaria. Why? 11414280

41. Differentiate between single circuit and double circuit heart. 11414281

(Board 2015)

42. What is the difference between granulocytes and agranulocytes? 11414282

43. Name some disorders relating to blood. 11414283

44. How capillary exchange is made possible? 11414284

45. What is the difference between stroke and brain haemorrhage? 11414285

Brain haemorrhage:

46. Differentiate between pulmonary and systemic circulation. (Board 2013) 11414286

47. What is pus? 11414287

48. Why transportation systems are not essential for aquatic unicellular as well as simple multi cellular animals? 11414288

49. What are the characteristics or components of Circulatory system?

11414289

50. What is the main difference between open and closed circulatory system?

11414290

51. What is haemocoel? 11414291

52. What type of circulatory system is present in earthworm and cockroach?

11414292

53. Name the chambers of fish heart. 11414293

54. What type of blood passes through heart of fishes? 11414294

55. Why amphibian heart is considered 3-chambered as well as 5-chambered?

11414295

56. Differentiate between pulmonary and aortic trunks. 11414296

57. What is plasma? 11414297

58. What are different solutes present in plasma? 11414298

59. Account for the functions of plasma proteins. 11414299

60. Name the mammals having nucleated RBC. 11414300

61. What is the shape of erythrocytes? 11414301

62. Where RBC is formed in man? 11414302

63. What is the function of RBC? 11414303

64. What is number of RBC and WBC in 1 mm³ of blood? 11414304

65. What is the life span of erythrocytes (RBC)? 11414305

66. What is the life span of leucocytes (WBC)? 11414306

67. What is the function of monocytes and neutrophils? 11414307

68. What is the function of macrophages and neutrophils? 11414308

69. What is the function of eosinophils? 11414309

70. What is the function of basophils?11414310

71. What is the function of lymphocytes? 11414311

72. What are platelets? (Board 2010) 11414312

73. What is the function of platelets? 11414313

74. How does blood clot? 11414314

75. What is leucaemia? 11414315

76. Name different types of leucaemia. 11414316

77. How leucaemia can be cured? 11414317

78. Why Thalassaemia is called Cooley's anaemia? 11414318

79. What are characteristics of thalassaemia? 11414319

80. How thalassaemia is cured? 11414320

81. What is oedema? Also name its types. 11414321

82. What is location of human heart? 11414322

83. What is pericardial cavity? 11414323

84. What is the composition of wall of heart? 11414324

85. What is the function of pericardium? 11414325

86. What is myocardium made up of?

11414326

87. What is tricuspid valve? 11414327

88. What is bicuspid valve? 11414328

89. What are chordae tendinae? 11414329

90. What is semilunar valve? 11414330

91. What are coronary arteries? 11414331

92. How many branches are given off by aorta before descending down? 11414332

93. Name the branches of iliac arteries and body parts supplied by them. 11414333

94. What is ventricular systole? 11414334

95. What is sino-atrial node or pace maker? 11414335

96. What is composition of S-A node? 11414336

97. What is advantage of electrocardiogram? (Board 2015) 11414337

98. What are blue babies? (Board 2015) 11414338

99. What is the wall of arteries made up? 11414339

100. What is atherosclerosis? 11414340

101. Define arteriosclerosis. 11414341

102. What is interstitial fluid? 11414342

103. Define hypertension. 11414343

104. How thrombus is formed? 11414344

105. Define heart attack or Myocardial infarction. 11414345

106. What are conditions to prevent heart attack? 11414346

107. What is stroke or cerebral infarction? 11414347

108. What is hemorrhage? 11414348

109. What are the major components of lymphatic system? 11414349

110. What is lymph? 11414350

111. Where is lymphatic system linked with blood circulatory system? 11414351

112. What are lymph nodes? 11414352

113. Where are lymph nodes present? 11414353

114. Where are lymphoid masses present? 11414354

115. Name some lymphoid masses. (Board 2010) 11414355

116. How flow of lymph is maintained?

11414356

117. What is antiserum? (Board 2014) 11414357

118. What are lacteals? 11414358

119. Differentiate between active and passive immunity. 11414359

120. Why lymphocyte T and B have been given these names? 11414360

121. How cell-mediated response differ from humoral immune response?

11414361

122. What is antivenom serum? 11414362

SELECTED from BOARD papers

Q.1 What is apoplast pathway? (Board 2007) 11414363

Q.2 What is kPa? (L.B- 2007) 11414364

Q.3 Define osmotic potential. (Board 2007) 11414365

Q.4 Differentiate between plasmolysis and deplasmolysis. (Board 2008,08,10,12) 11414366

Q.5 Define guttation or exudation. (Board 2004, 2012) 11414367

Q.6 What is bleeding? (Board 2007) 11414368

Q.7 What are different types of transpiration? (Board 2005) 11414369

Q.8 Define cuticular transpiration. (Board 2005) 11414370

Q.9 What is lenticular transpiration? (Board 2005, 07) 11414371

Q.10 What are the controlling factors for K⁺ influx? Or what controls the movement of K⁺ into and out of the guard cells? (Board 2007) 11414372

Q.11 What are the characteristics or components of Circulatory system in a Multicellular animal? (Board 2008) 11414373

Q.12 What is the main difference between open and closed circulatory system?

(Board 2007) 11414374

Q.13 What is electrocardiogram? (Board 2008, 14) 11414375

Q.14 What is immunity? Give its types. (Board 2007) 11414376

Q.15 What do you know about vein? (Board 2007) 11414377

Q.16 How do humidity and vapour pressure affect rate of transpiration.

(Board 2007) 11414378

Q.17 What is the role of capillaries in blood circulation and transportation?

(Board 2007) 11414379

Q.18 What is the significance of lymph nodes? (Board 2007) 11414380

Q.19 Compare monocytes with lymphocytes. (Board 2008) 11414381

Q.20 Define active immunity. 11414382

(Board 2013)

Q.21 What is the function of pacemaker? 11414383

Causative

11th Biology Objectives & Short Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

SELECTED From BOARD Papers

Short Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

SELECTED From BOARD papers

Short Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

Multiple Choice Questions

Short Questions

SELECTED FROM BOARD PAPERS

Multiple Choice Questions

Selected From board papers

Q.1 What are coral reefs?

(Board 2003, 14) 11410279

Multiple Choice Questions

SELECTED from BOARD papers

Short Questions

SELECTED FROM BOARD PAPERS

Multiple Choice Questions

SELECTED FROM BOARD PAPERS

Short Questions

SELECTED FROM BOARD PAPERS

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Air spaces between mesophyll cells of a leaf comprise ________of total volume. 11413021

SELECTED FROM BOARD PAPERS

Short Questions

SELECTED FROM BOARD PAPERS

Multiple Choice Questions

c) oedema d) cyanosis

d) They have valves in them

SELECTED FROM BOARD PAPERS

Short Questions

SELECTED from BOARD papers

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